Showing posts with label ibn janach. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ibn janach. Show all posts

Sunday, April 06, 2014

Who was the ish iti?

יַד-אִישׁ עִתִּי?
In Acharei Mot, in discussing the seir hamishtalaech, we find that the ish iti is the one who brings the goat to Azazel.

Vayikra 16:21:

כא  וְסָמַךְ אַהֲרֹן אֶת-שְׁתֵּי יָדָו, עַל רֹאשׁ הַשָּׂעִיר הַחַי, וְהִתְוַדָּה עָלָיו אֶת-כָּל-עֲו‍ֹנֹת בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל, וְאֶת-כָּל-פִּשְׁעֵיהֶם לְכָל-חַטֹּאתָם; וְנָתַן אֹתָם עַל-רֹאשׁ הַשָּׂעִיר, וְשִׁלַּח בְּיַד-אִישׁ עִתִּי הַמִּדְבָּרָה.
21 And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions, even all their sins; and he shall put them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of an appointed man into the wilderness.

I agree that the most straightforward meaning of Ish Iti is the man appointed for this task.

Rabbi Yonah Ibn Janach (995-1050) in Sefer Hashorashim gives the following explanation, based on other pesukim in Tanach in which the word is used associated with people:
איש עתי: חכם ובקי בדינים, יודע מה שיעשה בשעה
 ההיא, מל׳ יודע בינה לעתים (דה״א י״ב, ל״ג) וכן יודעי
 העתים (אסתר א׳ י״ג). (סה״ש 361).

"איש עתי -- a scholar and expert in the laws, who knows what to do at the time, from the language of [I Divrei Hayamim 12:33]:

לג  וּמִבְּנֵי יִשָּׂשכָר, יוֹדְעֵי בִינָה לַעִתִּים, לָדַעַת, מַה-יַּעֲשֶׂה יִשְׂרָאֵל--רָאשֵׁיהֶם מָאתַיִם, וְכָל-אֲחֵיהֶם עַל-פִּיהֶם.  {ס}33 And of the children of Issachar, men that had understanding of the times, to know what Israel ought to do; the heads of them were two hundred; and all their brethren were at their commandment. {S}

and [Esther 1:13]:

יג  וַיֹּאמֶר הַמֶּלֶךְ, לַחֲכָמִים יֹדְעֵי הָעִתִּים:  כִּי-כֵן, דְּבַר הַמֶּלֶךְ, לִפְנֵי, כָּל-יֹדְעֵי דָּת וָדִין.13 Then the king said to the wise men, who knew the times--for so was the king's manner toward all that knew law and judgment;

"

End quote.

Though to argue against this, there might be a difference between yode'ei haitim and ish iti.

Sunday, February 02, 2014

Heavy is the head that wears the crown

Especially if the crown weighs a full kikar of gold!

The pasuk and Rashi from parshat Teruma:

He shall make it of a talent of pure gold, with all these implements.לט. כִּכַּר זָהָב טָהוֹר יַעֲשֶׂה אֹתָהּ אֵת כָּל הַכֵּלִים הָאֵלֶּה:
a talent pure gold: Heb. כִּכַּר.[This means] that its weight along with all its implements shall be nothing but a talent, no less and no more. The talent used for mundane matters was sixty maneh, and the one used for holy matters was double, thus one hundred twenty maneh (Bech. 5a). The maneh is the litra with which silver is weighed according to the weight used in Cologne, which is the equivalent of one hundred gold pieces [or] twenty-five selas, for the sela is equivalent to four gold pieces. [This is the equivalent of sixty-four pounds.]ככר זהב טהור: שלא יהיה משקלה עם כל כליה אלא ככר, לא פחות ולא יותר, והככר של חול ששים מנה ושל קדש היה כפול, מאה עשרים מנה, והמנה הוא ליטרא ששוקלין בה כסף למשקל קולוני"א והם מאה זהובים, עשרים וחמשה סלעים והסלע ארבעה זהובים:

Rabbenu Yona Ibn Janach writes:

That is, after relating a complex calculation of its weight, he writes:

"Like this I have seen, but it is astonishing to me, that this was not too heavy upon the kings to wear a crown of this weight upon their heads, as is stated (II Shmuel 12:30):

ל  וַיִּקַּח אֶת-עֲטֶרֶת-מַלְכָּם מֵעַל רֹאשׁוֹ וּמִשְׁקָלָהּ כִּכַּר זָהָב, וְאֶבֶן יְקָרָה, וַתְּהִי, עַל-רֹאשׁ דָּוִד; וּשְׁלַל הָעִיר הוֹצִיא, הַרְבֵּה מְאֹד.30 And he took the crown of their king from off his head; and the weight thereof was a talent of gold, and in it were precious stones; and it was set on David's head. And he brought forth the spoil of the city, exceeding much.

And therefore I don't think that this explanation is correct. Even though I have seen in a few of the commentaries that the kikar is 100 litras.

(The compiler [R' A.Z. Rabinowitz]: Yet there are some who explain מלכם not from the language of king but rather like Milcom, the deity of the Bnei Amon, see Yirmeyahu 49:1, but there [in the same pasuk in Shmuel] immediately afterwards it states, וַתְּהִי, עַל-רֹאשׁ דָּוִד, and it was on the head of David.)

(Sefer Hashorashim 229)"

End quote. I emended the translated pasuk in Shmuel above so as not to give away the Milcom deity answer, and to be consistent with Ibn Janach's translation.

For comparison, the Imperial State Crown weighs 0.9 kg, which is much less.

ImperialStateCrown.jpg

Other possibilities:
a) The phrase וַתְּהִי, עַל-רֹאשׁ דָּוִד is meant figuratively, that he took rulership.
b) It was this heavy, either of the deity or of a king, but was mounted to the throne, rather than resting on David's head.
c) divrei torah midivrei kabbalah lo yalfinan. Words as they are used in Navi are not necessarily used the same way they are used in the Torah. And so, while shekel and kikar may have a one weight unit meaning in the Torah, they might have an entirely different weight-unit meaning in sefer Shmuel.

Thursday, December 12, 2013

How could Yaakov see? Weren't his eyes dim from old age?

In Bereishit perek 48, Yaakov encounters Yosef and his sons.

ח  וַיַּרְא יִשְׂרָאֵל, אֶת-בְּנֵי יוֹסֵף; וַיֹּאמֶר, מִי-אֵלֶּה.8 And Israel beheld Joseph's sons, and said: 'Who are these?'
ט  וַיֹּאמֶר יוֹסֵף, אֶל-אָבִיו, בָּנַי הֵם, אֲשֶׁר-נָתַן-לִי אֱלֹהִים בָּזֶה; וַיֹּאמַר, קָחֶם-נָא אֵלַי וַאֲבָרְכֵם.9 And Joseph said unto his father: 'They are my sons, whom God hath given me here.' And he said: 'Bring them, I pray thee, unto me, and I will bless them.'
י  וְעֵינֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל כָּבְדוּ מִזֹּקֶן, לֹא יוּכַל לִרְאוֹת; וַיַּגֵּשׁ אֹתָם אֵלָיו, וַיִּשַּׁק לָהֶם וַיְחַבֵּק לָהֶם.10 Now the eyes of Israel were dim for age, so that he could not see. And he brought them near unto him; and he kissed them, and embraced them.
יא  וַיֹּאמֶר יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-יוֹסֵף, רְאֹה פָנֶיךָ לֹא פִלָּלְתִּי; וְהִנֵּה הֶרְאָה אֹתִי אֱלֹהִים, גַּם אֶת-זַרְעֶךָ.11 And Israel said unto Joseph: 'I had not thought to see thy face; and, lo, God hath let me see thy seed also.'

In pasuk 8, וַיַּרְא יִשְׂרָאֵל.
In pasuk 10, וְעֵינֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל כָּבְדוּ מִזֹּקֶן, לֹא יוּכַל לִרְאוֹת.
In pasuk11, רְאֹה פָנֶיךָ לֹא פִלָּלְתִּי; וְהִנֵּה הֶרְאָה אֹתִי אֱלֹהִים, גַּם אֶת-זַרְעֶךָ.

A silly question: I thought Yaakov couldn't see (pasuk 8)? So how did he see Yosef's sons (pasuk 8)? And how did he see in Yosef's face and Yosef's sons (pasuk 11)?

One possible answer is that "see" doesn't mean literally seeing. In parshat Balak

ב  וַיַּרְא בָּלָק, בֶּן-צִפּוֹר, אֵת כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-עָשָׂה יִשְׂרָאֵל, לָאֱמֹרִי.2 And Balak the son of Zippor saw all that Israel had done to the Amorites.

need we claim that he literally saw with his eyes? If he had reports from scouts what Israel had done, wouldn't that be sufficient to say that he "saw"?

This is what Ibn Janach says, more or less:

 וַיַּרְא יִשְׂרָאֵל -- that is, it was known to him and he sensed their coming, even though he did not [literally] see them, as was written וְעֵינֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל כָּבְדוּ מִזֹּקֶן, לֹא יוּכַל לִרְאוֹת. (Sefer Hashorashim, 462)

Of course, there are degrees of blindness, such that he could possibly have recognized people he knew but in day-to-day life be functionally blind.

I was also thinking about the role of this interjection, of וְעֵינֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל כָּבְדוּ מִזֹּקֶן, לֹא יוּכַל לִרְאוֹת. Why is it necessary for the Torah to stress this, and right here? Here are a few answers, but I don't think they are all simultaneously true. That is, if it comes for reason X, then we should know that it is not coming for reason Y.

a) To explain why they should approach Yaakov. (But they should approach anyway, so that he could rest his hands upon them as he blesses them.)
b) To draw the parallel to Yitzchak's accidental blessing of Yaakov. Yitzchak confused his firstborn and second born, in part because of his blindness. Indeed, Yitzchak also asked Yaakov to draw near to him, and Yaakov only was able to deceive his father because of the fur.
c) To explain Yosef's mistaken impression later (in pasuk 18) that Yaakov had mistaken the older for the younger. וַיֹּאמֶר יוֹסֵף אֶל-אָבִיו, לֹא-כֵן אָבִי:  כִּי-זֶה הַבְּכֹר

Tuesday, December 03, 2013

ACH in אַךְ טָרֹף טֹרָף -- an expression of certainty, doubt, or reduction?

Famously, אך and רק midrashically come only to exclude, to be memaet. And this is interesting because according to Biblical scholars, this usage of אך is only in Rabbinic Hebrew, while in Biblical Hebrew it means "surely", or "indeed". If so, this is an anachronistic sort of derasha, and so one reads in alternate meanings to what would have been intended by the Biblical author.

You could argue and say that the meaning in Rabbinic Hebrew is also the meaning in Biblical Hebrew. This would require analysis of how it is used across Tanach.

There is an אך in Vayigash that caught my eye. Yaakov relates the loss of Yosef, in Bereishit 44:28:

 The one went away from me, and I said, "He has surely been torn to pieces, and I have not seen him since."כח. וַיֵּצֵא הָאֶחָד מֵאִתִּי וָאֹמַר אַךְ טָרֹף טֹרָף וְלֹא רְאִיתִיו עַד הֵנָּה:
Or HaChaim is therefore impelled to interpret it as an exclusion:


"ACH TAROF etc.: He hints, by saying אך, that it is a reduction of טָרֹף טֹרָף, for he [Yosef] is not in the distress of servitude nor in the distress of prison. And that is why he concludes וְלֹא רְאִיתִיו עַד הֵנָּה, behold he is relating that he does exist, but he has yet to see him until now.

Further is intended by אַךְ טָרֹף טֹרָף etc. to explain that אך is a reduction specifically in the tearing [טָרֹף], but regarding that which he said 'a wild animal ate him", which they za'"l said was intended as a reference to the wife of Potifar, in this, there is no reduction, for he was already [????] that which she caused him [Yosef] to lose 10 seons, for he had been destined to raise 12 tribes, as they za'l said, and via this wickedness [??] ten drops [of semen] fell from him and thus only two [Ephraim and Menashe] came from him."

OK, not exactly what I would call peshat, even though it comes from the Or HaChaim. But this sort of close reading / midrashic reading makes a great deal of the Rabbinic understanding of אך.

Onkelos translates this אך as ברם. But is he saying "only" or "indeed"?

Look at Jastrow, who shows that in Aramaic it has both meanings:

Though maybe we should restrict our investigation to Targum.

Rabbenu Yonah Ibn Janach writes as follows, taking this אך as a doubt -- thus, perhaps, a miut -- as opposed to the usual "surely":

"The word אך here does NOT come to relate that it is a certain thing, as it meant in [Bereishit 29:14, Lavan speaking to Yaakov]

יד  וַיֹּאמֶר לוֹ לָבָן, אַךְ עַצְמִי וּבְשָׂרִי אָתָּה; וַיֵּשֶׁב עִמּוֹ, חֹדֶשׁ יָמִים.14 And Laban said to him: 'Surely thou art my bone and my flesh.' And he abode with him the space of a month.

but rather for a doubt. And a proof to this is [the end of the pasuk] וְלֹא רְאִיתִיו עַד הֵנָּה. And had it been the case in truth, it would not have been correct to say this." (Sefer HaShorashim 28)

Presumably, Ibn Janach's reason is that "I have not seen him" indicates some uncertainty. Well, I haven't seen him, so presumably he is dead. And why say this if you saw his bloody clothing? Of course you would not be expecting to see him after this.

But one (meaning Josh) could argue in the opposite direction. For instance: Yaakov is saying that this was what he was convinced of, based on the evidence, at the time. Yes, maybe Yosef could have lost the clothing and survived the attack. But Yaakov is further convinced that his interpretation of Yosef's death was true because Yosef never did surface.

Moreover, one should not ignore the emotion of the statement. This loss / disappearance of Yosef profoundly affected Yaakov, and a grieving father confronted with this loss would say, emotionally, surely this has happened. Whether or not there is absolute hard evidence.

Ibn Ezra, I think, says much of the same thing, though projecting the certainly to the present day:

אך טרף טרף. והעד כי לא ראיתיו עד הנה:

He has אך [certainly] been torn. And the evidence of this is that I have not seen him until now.

Meanwhile, Rabbi Yosef Ibn Caspi argues, and introduces a safek into the proceedings:


"The import is 'I said, and estimated [J: back then] that he was torn, though this had an element of doubt. But regardless, I have not seen him until now.' And see [says Ibn Caspi] the difference between my position and that of the Chacham Ibn Ezra who said 'and the evidence is לא ראיתיו עד הנה. For this is no evidence at all!"

Monday, July 22, 2013

Rav Saadia Gaon on Ashterot Tzonecha

Most of this is done with pictures.

At the start of Ekev, Saadia Gaon that ashterot tzonecha is vegafrat jinmak:

The Arabic word ghanam is sheep, so ghinmak means your sheep. The word before, we-gaphrat, I don't know.

Rabbenu Yonah Ibn Janach on the meaning of this:

and in Sefer Hashorashim of Ibn Janach, where this compilation is getting it from:

What does it mean to say that the ghufar is from the בני השה? Is it a term for a young sheep, as I think?

Elsewhere, we see this Arabic ghufar as a cognate of Hebrew עפר, as in עפר האילים. From Keil and Delitzsh's commentary on Song of Songs:
 עפר is the young hart, like the Arab. ghufar (ghafar), the young chamois, probably from the covering of young hair; whence also the young lion may be called כּפיר. 
The chamois is a goat-antelope species. But I think the idea is the young of the species. And here, the young females of the sheep species.

Friday, June 21, 2013

That Wascally Wabr

The meaning of words changes over time and over place.

For example, growing up, I was always confused when Torah translations talked about there being corn in Egpyt. Wasn't corn a plant that was native to America? How then could Yaakov have heard that there was corn in Egypt? Either corn existed in Egypt, or this was a strange translation.

I didn't realize that the English translations originated in England, and that in England it means grain, usually wheat, while in modern America it means maize. Or that it locally is understood to denote the leading crop of a district. At the time, in my teens, I didn't think to look up such a common word in a dictionary, and there was no Google to use to find its etymology in three seconds.

Nowadays, I can search for etymology corn and find the etymology of corn:

corn (n.1) Look up corn at Dictionary.com
"grain," Old English corn, from Proto-Germanic *kurnam "small seed" (cf. Old Frisian and Old Saxon korn "grain," Middle Dutch coren, German Korn, Old Norse korn, Gothic kaurn), from PIE root *gre-no- "grain" (cf. Old Church Slavonic zruno "grain," Latin granum "seed," Lithuanian žirnis "pea"). The sense of the Old English word was "grain with the seed still in" (e.g. barleycorn) rather than a particular plant.

Locally understood to denote the leading crop of a district. Restricted to corn on the cob in America (c.1600, originally Indian corn, but the adjective was dropped), usually wheat in England, oats in Scotland and Ireland, while Korn means "rye" in parts of Germany. Maize was introduced to China by 1550, it thrived where rice did not grow well and was a significant factor in the 18th century population boom there. Cornflakesfirst recorded 1907. Corned beef so called for the "corns" or grains of salt with which it is preserved; from verb corn "to salt" (1560s).
I did know that there were differences between American English and British English. For example, boot either means the trunk of an automobile or a shoe. But that is not nearly as confusing as when the word is a cognate, that is, almost the same meaning, with the same surface form, in the two languages.

Here is another example: Rabbit.

Did you know that in British English, and in scientific zoological usage, "rabbit" refers to one group of animals (I'll call them "true rabbits" to keep things clear), while in American English "rabbit" it refers to an entirely different group of animals ("hares")?

That is, from the perspective of scientific taxonomy, looking at the genera (genuses) that make up the family Leporidae,
Members of all genera except Lepus are usually referred to as rabbits, while members of Lepus (which accounts for almost half the species) are usually called hares.
And in British English, this is true. However, in American English, hares are called rabbits. That is because there are no native "true rabbits" in America, only hares. And so the term "rabbit" was applied to the closest species.

I found this out from an online etymological dictionary:

rabbit (n.) Look up rabbit at Dictionary.com
...
Zoologically speaking, there are no native rabbits in the United States; they are all hares. But the early colonists, for some unknown reason, dropped the word hare out of their vocabulary, and it is rarely heard in American speech to this day. When it appears it is almost always applied to the so-called Belgian hare, which, curiously enough, is not a hare at all, but a true rabbit. [H.L. Mencken]
Note that Americans call rabbits hares and hares rabbits.

It is no wonder that, on occasion, American publications will confuse the terms and speak of rabbits instead of hares, where earlier and later works, employing the precise scientific taxonomic names, make it clear that hares were the subject matter. A certain fellow pointed to sources showing "rabbits" in Eretz Yisrael, based on American sources,
Rabbits were also found in excavations in the Negev [Theron Douglas Price, Anne Birgitte Gebauer. “Last hunters, first farmers: new perspectives on the prehistoric transition to agriculture”. School of American Research (Santa Fe, N.M.) School of American Research Press, 1995 - Technology & Engineering - 354 pages, page 61] and in Israel’s vicinity like Syria [Andrew M. T. Moore. “A Pre Neolithic Farmers' Village on the Euphrates”. Scientific American. 1979;241(8):62-70, page 66]
and refused to accept any correction in this matter, in part on ideological grounds.

This is an example of the meaning of a word changing based on locale. The word "rabbit" also changed across time. From the same etymological dictionary:

rabbit (n.) Look up rabbit at Dictionary.com
late 14c., "young of the coney," from French dialect (cf. Walloon robète), diminutive of Flemish or Middle Dutch robbe "rabbit," of unknown origin. "A Germanic noun with a French suffix" [Liberman]. The adult was a coney (q.v.) until 18c.
Thus, initially it meant the young of a coney, whereas now it refers to both young and old of the species.

The gemara, as well, makes note of words changing their meaning, and that this can have practical ramifications. Shabbat 36a-b:
For R. Hisda said: The following three things reversed their designations after the destruction of the Temple: [i] trumpet [changed to] shofar, and shofar to trumpet. What is the practical bearing thereof? in respect of the shofar [blown] on New Year. [ii] 'Arabah [willow] [changed to] zafzafah and zafzafah to 'Arabah. What is the practical bearing thereof? — In respect of the lulab [iii] Pathora [changed to] pathorta and pathorta to Pathora. What is the practical bearing thereof? — In respect of buying and selling. Abaye observed: We too can state:Hoblila [changed to] be kasse and be kasse to hoblila. What is the practical bearing thereof? In respect of a needle which is found in the thickness of the beth hakosoth, which if [found] on one side, it [the animal] is fit [for food]; if through both sides, it [the animal] is terefah. R. Ashi said, We too will state: Babylon [changed to] Borsif and Borsif to Babylon.
Another famous example is the tzvi. As Dr. Yehuda Feliks wrote in Nature and Man in the Bible: Chapters in Biblical Ecology, the Biblical and Talmudic tzvi is the gazelle, but later European translators transferred the term to the Biblical ayal, a deer.

Next, we have the shafan. The Biblical term most likely refers to the hyrax, which the Israelites were familiar with. Pesukim in Mishlei and Tehillim describe behavior and habitat for the shafan that matches that of the hyrax. I am not going to rehash all of this here.

Saadia Gaon translates the shafan as wabr in his Tafsir. Thus, where the Torah has:


Rav Saadia Gaon writes:

He wrote the Tafsir between 922 and 928 CE.

Is this Rav Saadia Gaon's al-wabr? :-)
Great, but we don't know what a wabr is. Is the wabr a hyrax? An octopus? Maybe it means llama or pica! Saadia Gaon was writing for an audience, though, so we can try to determine what al wabr meant in his time and his place. There is good evidence that where Saadia Gaon was (Egypt, Eretz Yisrael, etc.), it meant hyrax, which is indigenous to the area and was indeed referred to as al-wabr.

However, the Arabic language spread throughout the world, since the Arabs were conquering and converting the entire world. And in other places, they did not have hyraxes, but they did have other animals, which required an Arabic name. And so, the name wabr could be reused to apply to the similar local species.

Indeed, I've seen wabr translated as 'weasel', 'guinea pig', 'coney', and 'hyrax'.

At some point, at least 85 years later (that it, some time after 1013 CE), and in Spain, a country that did not have hyraxes, Rabbi Yonah Ibn Janach wrote Sefer HaShorashim, in which he explains shafan as al wabr, and then proceeds to define the term in medieval Spanish.

Thus, he writes:

Zohar Amar has translated it as:

"הוא 'אלובר', בעל חיים כמידת חתול שהוא מצוי מעט במזרח, ואולם אצלנו הוא מרובה, ואולם המון העם אינו מכירו באותו השם, אלא בשם 'קנליה' (قنلية), והוא ניב ספרדי"
In English (some help from commenters on this post):

"This is the al-wabr, an animal the size of a cat which is found rarely in the East, yet by us it is plentiful. [Footnote 45: And it is well known in Morroco.] And the hamon am do not recognize it by this name [Josh: of wabr], but rather by the name conilio, which is a foreign [=Spanish] word."

We see here that Ibn Janach, who did not travel to the East, is identifying the Arabic al-wabr as conilio. Since in modern Spanish, conilio means rabbit, it is quite plausible that he meant it to be rabbit. The hyrax is not found in Spain; the rabbit was not found (or at least found plentifully) in the East, and was plentiful in Spain.

He is also saying that this is not what the people in his vicinity would call the creature. It is thus an identification he is making himself, or which some people use.

It thus seems quite likely to me that this is an instance of a word's meaning shifting over time and place. That is, Ibn Janach did not know of the hyrax, but he did know of the rabbit, and that some people called the rabbit by the term al-wabr, and so he assumed that this was the meaning of Saadia Gaon's term.

And so, Ibn Janach reports and passes on the masorah of shafan as al-wabr from the authority or authorities before him, but accidentally shifted the identification of al-wabr to the rabbit. This is similar to the way in which various Rishonim living in Europe identify Chazal's shafan as the rabbit. Indeed, perhaps Ibn Janach is the very vector of the shift.

Wednesday, October 05, 2011

Who buried Moshe?

Summary: According to Ibn Janach, Moshe, via a miracle. Then he retracts to say that it was Hashem.

Post: Towards the end of Zot HaBracha, we read:

ו  וַיִּקְבֹּר אֹתוֹ בַגַּי בְּאֶרֶץ מוֹאָב, מוּל בֵּית פְּעוֹר; וְלֹא-יָדַע אִישׁ אֶת-קְבֻרָתוֹ, עַד הַיּוֹם הַזֶּה.6 And he was buried in the valley in the land of Moab over against Beth-peor; and no man knoweth of his sepulchre unto this day.

While this translation renders וַיִּקְבֹּר as if it were passive, a straightforward reading it that is is an active verb. There was someone who buried Moshe in the valley. Who was this?

According to Ibn Janach:


"and he buried him in the valley -- that is to say, he {=Moshe} buried himself in the valley. (And this is possible, that Moshe said to the earth, in the name of Hashem, to open and gather him it, and it opened by the word of God. (And this is the position of Rabbi Yishmael in the Sifrei, parashat Nazir -- the insight of Shadal.) And once he entered in it, he commanded, by the word of God, and it was closed for him after his soul ascended. And this sevara was close to me with nothing holding it back, until I saw the words of the men of the Mishnah (Sotah 1:9), and I turned from my position to their position. (Sefer haShorashim, 52)"

The Mishnah in Sotah reads:
מי לנו גדול ממשה, שלא נתעסק בו אלא הקדוש ברוך הוא, שנאמר "ויקבור אותו בגיא . . . מול . . ." (דברים לד,ו).  ולא על משה בלבד אמרו, אלא על כל הצדיקים, שהמקום אוספם, שנאמר "והלך לפניך צדקך, כבוד ה' יאספך" (ישעיהו נח,ח). ש
Thus, the competing theory that Ibn Janach eventually adopts is that Hashem buried Moshe.

I am not sure where Shadal wrote his haarah that Ibn Janach's former position was actually a Tannaitic position, but I wonder whether Ibn Janach would have been so quick to retract.

What about Shadal? How does he hold:

 ויקבור וגו ': כלו ' נקבר ברצון ה ' דרך נס בלא קובר.

"That is to say, he was buried by the will of Hashem, in a miraculous manner, without a burier."

This would seem to be like the second position. I should note that simply saying that vayikbor has an implicit hakover, like other instances like vayageid, with an implicit hamagid, is presumably ruled out, not just by the slight grammatical irregularity, which is certainly surmountable, but by the end of the pasuk, וְלֹא-יָדַע אִישׁ אֶת-קְבֻרָתוֹ, עַד הַיּוֹם הַזֶּה. If written even in the time of Yehoshua, then there would not have been a human kover. If written much much later, then it could be a statement in retrospect, that they buried him, but just where is lost to us nowadays. But that is theologically very difficult to say, and so Ibn Janach and Shadal are not offering that explanation.

(See also Abarbanel on this.)

Tuesday, October 04, 2011

Eshdat Lamo as a reference to אַשְׁדֹּת הַפִּסְגָּה

Summary: And if so, then neither the reisha nor seifa of the pasuk is speaking about mattan Torah.

Post: Towards the start of veZot HaBerachah, on the pasuk:

ב  וַיֹּאמַר, ה מִסִּינַי בָּא וְזָרַח מִשֵּׂעִיר לָמוֹ--הוֹפִיעַ מֵהַר פָּארָן, וְאָתָה מֵרִבְבֹת קֹדֶשׁ; מִימִינוֹ, אשדת (אֵשׁ דָּת) לָמוֹ.2 And he said: The LORD came from Sinai, and rose from Seir unto them; He shined forth from mount Paran, and He came from the myriads holy, at His right hand was a fiery law unto them.

we saw in a previous post the Ramban and Tur's unique take. Turning now to Shadal, we see that he writes as follows:
 ב ה ' מסיני בא: הטעם ה' נגלה עלי כאן כדי שאברך את ישראל, והנה ברכותי מפי עליון. ואמר שבא מסיני, שהוא המקום שנגלה עליו תחילה, ובבואו לכאן, הנה כבודו זורח ומופיע משעיר ופארן שהם בין הר סיני והר נבו, ובא למו, בשביל ישראל, כדי לברכם. 
מימינו אשדת: מימין לאשדת הפסגה הזאת שהיה משה עומד אז בתחתיתה, וטעם זכירת הימין, כי סיני ושעיר ופארן כולם לדרום הר נבו, והדרום נקרא ימין והצפון נקרא שמאל. ואין הכוונה כלל על מתן תורה. שאם כן היה לו לומר : "אל" סיני, לא : " מסיני". אשדת כתיב מילה חדא. והוא מן אשדות הפסגה ( למעלה ג' י"ז), וי"ו מימינו הוא על דרך בנו בעור ( במדבר כ"ד ג'), והיתה מתחילתה וי"ו הכינוי, על דרך מטתו שלשלמה ( שיר השירים ג' ז') שהוא על דרך לשון ארמי, שמה די אלהא ( דניאל ב' כ'), אלההון די שדרך מישך ( שם ג' כ"ט) ובמשך הזמן נשכח עיקר הוראתה וחזרה להיות אות נוספת, לפיכך מצאנוה גם אצל שם שהוא לשון נקבה, כגון חיתו ארץ ( בראשית א' כ"ד) וכן כאן מימינו אשדת. מילת דת איננה לשון עברי ואף לא לשון ארמי, אלא לשון פרסי 
הטעמים הם מסכימים תמיד עם הקרי, וכאן הקרי הוא אש דת בשתי מילות, לפיכך היה מן ההכרח שיהיו הטעמים בלתי מסכימים עם פירושי. אשדת בתי"ו בלי סמיכות, כמו עזרת מצר ( תהלים ס' י"ג), חכמת ודעת ( ישעיה ל"ג ו') וזולתם

"ה מִסִּינַי בָּא -- the meaning is that Hashem was revealed to me here, such that I should bless Israel, and thus, my blessing is from the mouth of the One On High. And he said that 'He came from Sinai', which was the place where Hashem revealed Himself first. And when He came here, behold His Glory rose and shone forth from Seir and Paran, which are between Har Sinai and Har Nevo. And came unto them, for the sake of Israel, in order to bless them.


מִימִינוֹ,אֵשׁ דָּת -- From the right of this Eshdat HaPisgah, which Moshe was standing then at its base. And the meaning of mentioning the right is that Sinai, Seir, and Paran are all to the south of Har Nevo, and the south is called right while the north is called left. And the intent is not at all to matan Torah. For if so, it should have said el-Sinai, 'to Sinai', not miSina, 'from Sinai'.


אֵשׁדָּת is written as a single word. And it is from Ashdot HaPisgah, {the slopes of Pisgah} {in Devarim 3:17:

יז  וְהָעֲרָבָה, וְהַיַּרְדֵּן וּגְבֻל--מִכִּנֶּרֶת, וְעַד יָם הָעֲרָבָה יָם הַמֶּלַח, תַּחַת אַשְׁדֹּת הַפִּסְגָּה, מִזְרָחָה.17 the Arabah also, the Jordan being the border thereof, from Chinnereth even unto the sea of the Arabah, the Salt Sea, under the slopes of Pisgah eastward.


The vav of מִימִינוֹ is in the same manner of Beno Beor {Bemidbar 24:3, נְאֻם בִּלְעָם בְּנוֹ בְעֹר}. And initially the vav was the vav of attribution {I would guess he means the genitive case, connoting possession}, in the same manner of {Shir Hashirim 3:7}, מִטָּתוֹ שֶׁלִּשְׁלֹמֹה {with the vav ending}, which is in the manner of the Aramaic language, as in Daniel 2:20:

כ  עָנֵה דָנִיֵּאל, וְאָמַר--לֶהֱוֵא שְׁמֵהּ דִּי-אֱלָהָא מְבָרַךְ, מִן-עָלְמָא וְעַד עָלְמָא:  דִּי חָכְמְתָא וּגְבוּרְתָא, דִּי לֵהּ-הִיא.20 Daniel spoke and said: Blessed be the name of God from everlasting even unto everlasting; for wisdom and might are His

{where the tzeirei mapik heh means His Name, even though there is already a דִּי-אֱלָהָא which immediately follows.} And Daniel 3:29:

כט  וּמִנִּי, שִׂים טְעֵם, דִּי כָל-עַם אֻמָּה וְלִשָּׁן דִּי-יֵאמַר שלה (שָׁלוּ) עַל אֱלָהֲהוֹן דִּי-שַׁדְרַךְ מֵישַׁךְ וַעֲבֵד נְגוֹא, הַדָּמִין יִתְעֲבֵד וּבַיְתֵהּ נְוָלִי יִשְׁתַּוֵּה; כָּל-קֳבֵל, דִּי לָא אִיתַי אֱלָהּ אָחֳרָן, דִּי-יִכֻּל לְהַצָּלָה, כִּדְנָה.29 Therefore I make a decree, that every people, nation, and language, which speak any thing amiss against the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-nego, shall be cut in pieces, and their houses shall be made a dunghill; because there is no other god that is able to deliver after this sort.'

{where the cholam nun-sofit implies 'their God', even though it is immediately followed by דִּי-שַׁדְרַךְ מֵישַׁךְ וַעֲבֵד נְגוֹא.}

And, with the passage of time, its initial import was forgotten and it turned to be an extraneous letter. Therefore we find it as well by a noun which is feminine, such as {Bereishit 1:24}

כד  וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, תּוֹצֵא הָאָרֶץ נֶפֶשׁ חַיָּה לְמִינָהּ, בְּהֵמָה וָרֶמֶשׂ וְחַיְתוֹ-אֶרֶץ, לְמִינָהּ; וַיְהִי-כֵן.24 And God said: 'Let the earth bring forth the living creature after its kind, cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after its kind.' And it was so.


And so too here, מִימִינוֹ,אֵשׁדָּת.


The word dat is not of the Hebrew language nor of the Aramaic language, but rather of the Persian language.


{Josh: To interject, this explanation by is not in accordance with the trup. First off, note the zakef-gadol on the word מִימִינוֹ. As a melech, it severs the word from the אֵשׁדָּת which follows it. Furthermore, there are two trup marks on the word אֵשׁדָּת, one on the אֵשׁ and one on the דָּת. That implies that these are two words, rather than a single word.}

The trup marks always agree with the krei. And here, the krei is esh dat, with two words. Therefore, perforce, the trup cannot agree with my explanation.


אֵשׁדָּת with a tav is not the construct form, such as {Tehillim 60:13}:

יג  הָבָה-לָּנוּ עֶזְרָת מִצָּר;    וְשָׁוְא, תְּשׁוּעַת אָדָם.13 Give us help against the adversary; for vain is the help of man.

{where ezrat is simply 'help', not 'help of X'}, and {Yeshaya 33:6}:

ו  וְהָיָה אֱמוּנַת עִתֶּיךָ, חֹסֶן יְשׁוּעֹת חָכְמַת וָדָעַת; יִרְאַת יְהוָה, הִיא אוֹצָרוֹ.  {פ}6 And the stability of thy times shall be a hoard of salvation--wisdom and knowledge, and the fear of the LORD which is His treasure. {P}


{where chochmat is 'wisdom', not 'wisdom of X'} and others like them."

End quote of Shadal.

For an example of someone who explicitly rejects the theory of Eshdat meaning 'slopes' as in Ashdot HaPisgah, see Ibn Janach:

"Eshdat is not from the language of Ashdot HaPishgah {Devarim 3:13}, as Avi Amar Ibn Yakvi had explained {that it was}. For they are two words grafted together, as the Targum and the author of the masorah had said, and it is the truth. (Sefer HaShorashim, 48)"

For a little bit more on on this Ibn Yakwi, see here, and in the footnote there:
See more about him here, as well.

Update: In the comment section, S. brings a nice idea by R' Eliyahu Bachur, in his commentary on Radak's sefer HaShorashim. See there, and this image, that does not list אשדת amongst other דת instances, because he regards it as a single word, as it is written, and from the language to ashdot hapisgah:


If so, here is someone else, a well-known Rishon, who endorses this.

Perhaps. Omission of a word is not necessarily compelling evidence. Does he list it under aleph for אשדות? Is there such an entry?

Update: See here in Shorashim:

where אשדת is not listed either. Perhaps he is just trying to steer clear of the doubt.

Thursday, September 08, 2011

Ibn Janach on וְעָשְׂתָה אֶת צִפָּרְנֶיהָ

Summary: as well as Chizkuni, Shadal, Ibn Caspi, and my own thoughts. It could be cutting, growing, or it could be that we don't have enough background knowledge (from cultural setting, rather than from psukim) to make an informed decision.

Post: There is a famous machlokes as to whether וְעָשְׂתָה אֶת צִפָּרְנֶיהָ means that the eshet yefat toar should grow her nails or cut her nails. Rashi endorses the interpretation which is accordance with halacha. Thus:

12. You shall bring her into your home, and she shall shave her head and let her nails grow.יב. וַהֲבֵאתָהּ אֶל תּוֹךְ בֵּיתֶךָ וְגִלְּחָה אֶת רֹאשָׁהּ וְעָשְׂתָה אֶת צִפָּרְנֶיהָ:
ועשתה את צפרניה: תגדלם כדי שתתנוול:


"She should grow them long, so that she should become disgusting."

But Rabbi Yonah Ibn Janach has an interesting comment:

"She should cut; in parallel to וְגִלְּחָה אֶת רֹאשָׁהּ. And in the Talmud (Yevamot 38), it is a dispute between Rabbi Eliezer who says she should cut and Rabbi Akiva who said that she should grow it. And the halacha is like Rabbi Akiva."

Yet, the halacha being like Rabbi Akiva does not stand in the way of Ibn Janach saying the reverse, based on internal textual evidence. Yes, Rashi does this as well, citing a midrash which is more in line with peshat even though the halacha is different. But as far as I know, he never explicitly rejects the halachic interpretation, saying it is halacha while endorsing the reverse. Yet here Ibn Janach explicitly mentions that the halacha is not like the opinion he selects. He might subscribe to some idea of halacha superseding peshat, but I don't know enough about Ibn Janach to say for sure.

Chizkuni arrives at the same conclusion, citing other evidence for asiyah referring to cutting. Namely, by Mepiboshet -- “he had not done his mustache and had not done his feet {=toenails}”. Presumably, this would refer to cutting the toenails, as something to do or neglect to do, just like his mustache. He notes that this is one side of the machlokes, but does not note that the halacha is like the other side.

Indeed, this selection of Rabbi Eliezer over Rabbi Akiva is well manifest; the explicit mention of contrary halacha was just something I found interesting.

Shadal has a rather wonderful statement of "I don't know." This is a mark of precision, to know what you do not know. Plus, it is a statement that perhaps others do not know either. Shadal writes:
 ולשון ועשתה את צפרניה אין ספק שענינו תיקון. ואנחנו לא נדע מנהג הימים ההם, ואולי תיקון הצפרנים לאבלות הוא הוא גידולן, שאם היה מנהג האבלים לגדל צפרניהם, גידולן זהו תיקונן.
"And the language of וְעָשְׂתָה אֶת צִפָּרְנֶיהָ, there is no doubt that its meaning is 'fixing'. But we don't know the custom of those days. And perhaps the 'fixing' of fingernails for mourning was their growing. For if the custom of mourners was to grow their fingernails, their growing was their fixing."

This overcomes any prooftext from Mepiboshet, since 'do' means different things in different contexts.

On the other hand, I don't think that cutting the hair necessarily has to do with the custom of mourners. They may grow their hair long. Rather, consider Yosef leaving the pit, where his hair was cut (not necessarily shaved) before seeing Pharaoh. If so, maybe this is a matter of preparation before her marriage, so that she does not enter as a captive of war, but a normal woman who has had chance to recover from the trauma and has full rights as a wife (as the pesukim indeed continue). The question might then be whether trimming the nails or letting them grow is a sign of beauty. I would guess that trimming would be -- a manicure -- since why should we assume that they would be trim at the time she was captured.

Ibn Caspi takes it as a sort of purification ritual. She removes all connection to her old life. Her hair, she shaves off. So too, she trims her fingernails. And he says, by way of stress, that 'if she could remove one of her limbs it would be a mitzvah -- and the intent in this is that there is an impression in her soul that she is like another woman, and that she should forget her entire father's household and her relatives.' This naturally leads into her mourning her father and mother for a month.

Tuesday, September 06, 2011

Ibn Janach on כִּי הָאָדָם עֵץ הַשָּׂדֶה לָבֹא מִפָּנֶיךָ בַּמָּצוֹר

Summary: What I think may be a unique way of reading it.

Post: At the end of Shofetim, there is a rather famous pasuk (Devarim 20:19)

כ,יט כִּי-תָצוּר אֶל-עִיר יָמִים רַבִּים לְהִלָּחֵם עָלֶיהָ לְתָפְשָׂהּ, לֹא-תַשְׁחִית אֶת-עֵצָהּ לִנְדֹּחַ עָלָיו גַּרְזֶן--כִּי מִמֶּנּוּ תֹאכֵל, וְאֹתוֹ לֹא תִכְרֹת:  כִּי הָאָדָם עֵץ הַשָּׂדֶה, לָבֹא מִפָּנֶיךָ בַּמָּצוֹר.אֲרֵי תְּצוּר עַל קַרְתָּא יוֹמִין סַגִּיאִין לְאָגָחָא קְרָבָא עֲלַהּ לְמִכְבְּשַׁהּ, לָא תְּחַבֵּיל יָת אִילָנַהּ לְאָרָמָא עֲלוֹהִי בַּרְזְלָא--אֲרֵי מִנֵּיהּ תֵּיכוֹל, וְיָתֵיהּ לָא תְּקוּץ:  אֲרֵי לָא כַּאֲנָשָׁא אִילָן חַקְלָא, לְמֵיעַל מִן קֳדָמָךְ בִּצְיָרָא.

Onkelos renders it (above): "For not like a man is the tree of the field, to enter before you into the siege."

There is no word "not" in the Biblical Hebrew original, so I would take this as a reworking of the idea in the Hebrew. Such as that Onkelos understood this as a question, and rephrased it as a negative statement.

Similarly, Rashi:

19. When you besiege a city for many days to wage war against it to capture it, you shall not destroy its trees by wielding an ax against them, for you may eat from them, but you shall not cut them down. Is the tree of the field a man, to go into the siege before you?יט. כִּי תָצוּר אֶל עִיר יָמִים רַבִּים לְהִלָּחֵם עָלֶיהָ לְתָפְשָׂהּ לֹא תַשְׁחִית אֶת עֵצָהּ לִנְדֹּחַ עָלָיו גַּרְזֶן כִּי מִמֶּנּוּ תֹאכֵל וְאֹתוֹ לֹא תִכְרֹת כִּי הָאָדָם עֵץ הַשָּׂדֶה לָבֹא מִפָּנֶיךָ בַּמָּצוֹר:
ימים: שנים:
רבים: שלשה. מכאן אמרו אין צרין על עיירות של נכרים פחות משלשה ימים קודם לשבת. ולמד שפותח בשלום שנים או שלשה ימים. וכן הוא אומר (שמואל ב' א, א) וישב דוד בצקלג ימים שנים, ובמלחמת הרשות הכתוב מדבר:
כי האדם עץ השדה: הרי כי משמש בלשון דלמא. שמא האדם עץ השדה להכנס בתוך המצור מפניך להתייסר ביסורי רעב וצמא כאנשי העיר למה תשחיתנו:
My translation: "Behold ki functions as a language of 'perhaps'. Perhaps a man is the tree of the field, to enter into the siege before you, to suffer the sufferings of hunger and thirst, like the men of the city? Why should you destroy it?"

Thus, Rashi regards it as a rhetorical question, and the Judaica Press translation (above) follows this.

But then, we have the following explanation, by Rabbi Yonah Ibn Janach:

"That is to say, 'when a man abandons the tree of the field in order to go before you into the siege, you should not cut it down if it is a food-tree. And there is hidden-ness. (In other words, a shortened verse.)"

If so, the actor of going into the siege is the man, not the tree. And ki is not, as Rashi puts it, a language of דלמא, but rather a language of כאשר.

I still gravitate towards the rhetorical question reading. It just sounds right to me. But this alternative is an interesting one to consider.

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