Thursday, September 10, 2009

Did the Canaanites Fool Moshe, Like the Giveonites did to Yehoshua?

In the beginning of Nitzavim, Jews of all types are called to enter into the covenant:

ט אַתֶּם נִצָּבִים הַיּוֹם כֻּלְּכֶם, לִפְנֵי ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶם: רָאשֵׁיכֶם שִׁבְטֵיכֶם, זִקְנֵיכֶם וְשֹׁטְרֵיכֶם, כֹּל, אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל.9 Ye are standing this day all of you before the LORD your God: your heads, your tribes, your elders, and your officers, even all the men of Israel,
י טַפְּכֶם נְשֵׁיכֶם--וְגֵרְךָ, אֲשֶׁר בְּקֶרֶב מַחֲנֶיךָ: מֵחֹטֵב עֵצֶיךָ, עַד שֹׁאֵב מֵימֶיךָ.10 your little ones, your wives, and thy stranger that is in the midst of thy camp, from the hewer of thy wood unto the drawer of thy water;
יא לְעָבְרְךָ, בִּבְרִית ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ--וּבְאָלָתוֹ: אֲשֶׁר ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, כֹּרֵת עִמְּךָ הַיּוֹם.11 that thou shouldest enter into the covenant of the LORD thy God--and into His oath--which the LORD thy God maketh with thee this day;

But who are these water carriers? I would say since the beginning specified the important ones, the intent here of woodcutters and watercarriers are the less-important Israelites as well. And these might be a subtype of "stranger" but need not even be so. Rather, all those mentioned in the first verse are the "important" and those in the second are the "unimportant", and all, kulchem, are to enter into this covenant with Hashem. And this is the theme here, and so this is the peshat.

But other meforshim understand this differently. For instance, Rashi writes:

both your woodcutters [and your water drawers]: [The mention of these people separate to the main community of Israel] teaches us that in the days of Moses, Canaanites came to convert [to Judaism], just as the Gibeonites came [to convert] in the days of Joshua. This is the meaning of the verse regarding the Gibeonites,“And they also acted cunningly…” (Josh. 9:4), [i. e., pretending that they had come from a far away country. When they were discovered, Joshua made them woodcutters and water drawers for Israel (see Josh. 9:3-27). Likewise here, the Canaanites attempted to deceive Moses,. but they did not succeed, and Moses did not accept them to be Jews. Rather,] Moses made them woodcutters and water drawers [i.e., slaves for Israel]. — [Tanchuma 2; Yev. 79a; see Rashi Gittin 23b] מחטב עציך: מלמד שבאו כנענים להתגייר בימי משה, כדרך שבאו גבעונים בימי יהושע. וזהו האמור בגבעונים (יהושע ט, ד) ויעשו גם המה בערמה, ונתנם משה חוטבי עצים ושואבי מים:

What I marked in blue in the Judaica Press translation of Rashi is their supercommentary on Rashi, but not actually in Rashi's words. And it is this point that I wish to contemplate in this post. Was Moshe fooled, or wasn't he? Were these people just slaves / servants, or were they genuine converts?

It seems that this midrash, taken from Tanchuma, has at least three inputs into it:

1) The pasuk transitions from וְגֵרְךָ אֲשֶׁר בְּקֶרֶב מַחֲנֶיךָ, where ger is understood to mean convert, into מֵחֹטֵב עֵצֶיךָ עַד שֹׁאֵב מֵימֶיךָ. This would imply that the water-drawer and wood-hewer are different people among the spectrum of converts.

2) Elsewhere, we have converts who fulfilled these same roles -- the Giveonim. Since this was written in the time of Moshe, and not in the time of Yehoshua, it is strange to talk of converts who fulfill these roles. Therefore, we have the urge to state that history repeated itself.

3) We have a basis to state that history did repeat itself. Even though in Biblical Hebrew, the word גם can often simply be a word with strengthens and emphasizes, the subject matter (see here for discussion and examples), rather than meaning "also", a midrash can interpret it literally in accordance with the meaning it later took on most often, such that it means also. Then, since the pasuk in sefer Yehoshua 9:4 reads:

ד וַיַּעֲשׂוּ גַם-הֵמָּה בְּעָרְמָה, וַיֵּלְכוּ וַיִּצְטַיָּרוּ; וַיִּקְחוּ שַׂקִּים בָּלִים, לַחֲמוֹרֵיהֶם, וְנֹאדוֹת יַיִן בָּלִים, וּמְבֻקָּעִים וּמְצֹרָרִים.4 they also did work wilily, and went and made as if they had been ambassadors, and took old sacks upon their asses, and wine skins, worn and rent and patched up;

Even as "also", depending on where one places it in the phrase, it could mean different things. In the translation above, it is an additional action of theirs, rather than them being an addition people who did.

But we can midrashically state that they as well did this. We could have no impetus to say this if we didn't have the "difficulty" raised by points (1) and (2), but if the difficulty is there, and the word gam is here, we can exploit it.

Now, Rashi does not say here that Moshe was not fooled, unlike Yehoshua by the Giveonites. This has to be deduced from elsewhere. First, his source, which is the midrash Tanchuma:
מחוטב עציך
אמר רבי יצחק בן טבלי:
מלמד, שבאו הגבעונים אצל יהושע בן נון וקבלן, שנאמר: ויעשו גם המה בערמה וגו' ( שם ט ד).ש

מהו גם המה?
ללמדך, שבאו אצל משה ולא קבלן
This seems to imply that the Giveonim themselves came to Moshe earlier, but he did not accept them. That would be difficult -- did Yehoshua restore the Giveonites to water-carrier status? Or were these other Giveonites. Perhaps these should be other Canaanites, as Rashi makes it explicitly. Even if we make these other Canaanites, the Giveonites only assumed this role after they had tricked Yehoshua into a covenant that he could not undo. Why should Moshe let them assume this role, if they tried to trick him and did not succeed?

Also, how does the derasha work, if this is so? Point (1) was that it started with them being geirim, because the pasuk leads in from וְגֵרְךָ אֲשֶׁר בְּקֶרֶב מַחֲנֶיךָ into מֵחֹטֵב עֵצֶיךָ עַד שֹׁאֵב מֵימֶיךָ. If Moshe didn't accept them, why should they be called geirim, rather than, say, avadim? We would have to undo point (1), which is a very compelling point, and for what cause? Indeed, that is another good question. Every point in a midrash should have some textual basis. Here, it is difficult to find a basis for saying that Moshe was not fooled. Indeed, I can find a basis or two for saying the opposite! This is very strange. But maybe we can say (within the midrash rather than within Rashi) that since these are Giveonites and not Canaanites, had Moshe been entirely fooled, there would be no cause for them to come at some later point to convert.

Regardless, it matters not only what a source says, but also how Rashi modifies it. On more than one occasion, Rashi seems to slightly modify midrashim, or else apply a midrash from one source onto a foreign pasuk. Here, Rashi adds Canaanites, to help clarify, and Rashi does not say that Moshe did not accept them. And Rashi adds lehitgayer. Perhaps he changed this deliberately, in the interests of peshat (or midrashic peshat), because it works well to say that Moshe did accept them, and that this is what geirim means. Of perhaps he was working off a different girsa of the Tanchuma, but I wouldn't count on it.

Ramban assumes that they did not even try to trick Moshe. Rather, they came in peace to him, and this is how Moshe established them; or else (I think) that they tried to trick him but that it did not work. Thus, Ramban understands these water-carriers and woodcutters to be the erev rav. But in explaining Rashi and the midrash:

והזכיר עוד הטף והנשים והגרים וחוטבי עצים ושואבי מים אשר להם מערב רב. והביא שם הטף, להביאם בברית, כי אפילו עם הדורות העתידים יכרות ברית, או כדי לזכותם כטעם שאמרו בהקהל (חגיגה ג א). ש

[sic]ורבותינו אמרו (יבמות עט א): ש
שבאו קצת כנענים בימי משה כדרך שבאו בימי יהושע ונתנם חוטבי עצים ושואבי מים לעדה ולמשכן ה'. ש
ואין הכוונה לומר שרימו אותו, אבל באו אליו להשלים עמו, כי כן המשפט כאשר ביארנו (לעיל כ י יא). ש

וכך מצאתי במדרש תנחומא (נצבים ב):ש
ללמדך שבאו אצל משה ולא קיבלם.
כלומר שלא יכלו לרמותו לכרות להם ברית, אבל עשאם מיד חוטבי עצים ושואבי מים:

In Etz Yosef's commentary on Tanchuma, we read of a different proposed girsa, which also appears in the Yalkut Shimoni:
מחוטב עציך מלמד שבאו גבעונים בימי משה ולא קבלן שנאמר ויעשו גם המה בערמה, מהו גם, ללמד שבאו אצל משה ולא קבלן
The same appears in Buber's version of Tanchuma, which he emends based on ktav yad romi and ketav yad rch"m.

I am not entirely convinced that this variant text is not an insertion / clarification. The word קבלן and the idea of multiple efforts drives this interpretation, I think. So that this was multiple efforts. And that they were not able to trick Moshe, as they were able to trick Yehoshua, but instead made them immediately into woodcutters and water carriers.

Etz Yosef notes that Rashi goes against this girsa (or perhaps created girsa) in the Yalkut Shimoni, because he says lihitgayer and says kenaanim, and kederech, such that these were different people, namely Canaanites. (And perhaps -- though he doesn't say so explicitly -- in Rashi's version, Moshe was indeed tricked. But maybe not, and his focus is only on Giveonitim / Kenaanim.) But he thinks that the gemara in Yevamot daf 74 (a typographical error for daf 79) suggests like the Yalkut.

How is it implied like Yalkut? Because in Yevamot 78b we read:
R. Hana b. Adda stated: David issued the decree of prohibition against the nethinim, for it is said, And the king called the Gibeonites, and said unto them-now the Gibeonites were not of the children of Israel etc.
and in the next amud, 79a, the setama di-gemara objects and reinterprets as follows:
Was it David, however, who issued the decree of prohibition against the nethinim? Moses, surely, issued that decree, for it is written, from the hewer of thy wood to the drawer of thy water! — Moses issued a decree against that generation only while David issued a decree against all generations.

But Joshua, in fact, issued the decree against them, for it is written, And Joshua made them that day hewers of wood and drawers of water for the congregation, and for the altar of the Lord! — Joshua made his decree for the period during which the Sanctuary was in existence while David made his decree for the time during which the Sanctuary was not in existence.
So according to this, we are speaking of the same Giveonim, with this quasi-status.

Judaica Press also refers us to Rashi's commentary on Gittin 23b. There, the when the gemara talks of slaves who are not part of the covenant, the gemara states:
מאי טעמא לאו משום דכתיב (אתם) (במדבר יח, ג) גם אתם מה אתם ישראל אף שלוחכם ישראל אמרי דבי ר' ינאי לא מה אתם בני ברית אף שלוחכם בני ברית
and Rashi comments:

לא מה אתם בני ברית - מהולים ובאו בברית מצות:

אף שלוחכם בני ברית - לאפוקי עובד כוכבים אבל עבד בן ברית הוא דכתיב (דברים כט) מחוטב עציך וגו

Thus, Rashi on Shas points to our local pasuk to show that the chotev eitzecha was entered into the covenant, and was a ben brit. What the writers of the Judaica Press translation may be implying here is that once we combine this with Rashi's comments on chumash, we see that these were slaves, and these were people who tried to trick Moshe into accepting them as converts. This then should be evidence that Rashi maintains that they did not succeed. And that Moshe did not accept them except as woodcutters and water carriers, that is, they say, slaves.

I am not convinced that we should combine Rashi on Shas with Rashi on chumash. Locally, all the words Rashi does use would convince me that these were other accepted converts, who used a similar strategy. That we could look inside sources, or remote Rashis, to get a picture entirely other than what Rashi seems to want to tell us may well be irrelevant. A slave is not the same as a geir, and the ger aspect seems a peshat concern and a midrashic concern. That Rashi gives a different interpretation in explaining the halachic position of one opinion in a dispute should not necessarily concern us. Indeed, I think it should not.

I would also point out that if we look in Daat Zekenim miBaalei HaTosafot (and here) the explanation of חוטב עציך are the male slaves which שואב מימיך are the female slaves. And he does not bring in any suggestion that there were Canaanites who tried to convert. So we can establish this, if we want, as entirely separate idea, such that they do not need to be slaves.

Conclusion: At the end of the day, what do I think? I don't know. I am leaning towards saying that of course Moshe did not accept them. How so? That Canaanites came, just as the Giveonites came in the days of Yehoshua, and tried to become full Israelites. If Moshe had accepted them fully, they would have no need to serve in these particular roles, of water-carriers and woodcutters. He did let them in with some status. It is unclear if this is as converts or as slaves. The gemara which says that Moshe put this decree in force only for his generation need not be speaking of Giveonites in particular but whichever people came to join klal Yisrael. And these Canaanites were perhaps accepted as geirim, and thus can be termed gercha. Or else they are gerim in the sense of strangers, though I think this is slightly less likely. And so these people were in a special caste, just for that generation, and so he did not fully accept them. Meanwhile, Yehoshua, at least initially, was entirely fooled and accepted them as full converts and new members of Israel. Only later, after their trickery was discovered, were they unaccepted and became the water carriers and wood cutters. See in sefer Yehoshua to see how this would work. I am not certain I would deem this role to necessarily be one of slaves, however. But I am still a bit uncertain.

Wednesday, September 09, 2009

Moshe didn't go anywhere!

DovBear has a nice post, in which he summarizes many medieval commentator's positions on just where Moshe went when it says וילך משה. Then he gives some explanations of how Ibn Ezra and Ramban's opinions have thematic appeal. And this is nice, because both peshat and derash should be sensitive to theme. And another nice explanation, that according to LXX and the Dead Sea scrolls, the text should be different, as ויכל, that Moshe completed.

My thoughts on the matter, which I posted as a comment, but which I'd like to post here as well, since they are thoughts on this week's parsha:
My first pshat-oriented instinct is that the question doesn't start, because of course וילך doesn't mean that Moshe went anywhere, and that it means something along the lines of "continue." And that any modern pashtan worth his salt would tell you that. And indeed, Baruch Shekivanti, Shadal says just that. See here:

In terms of the LXX, isn't this obvious, that an apparent mistranslation would be based on a variant text? That the Dead Sea Squirrels also have this variant text is not so surprising either. But the Masoretic Text is no slouch either.

Many LXX variants are based on obvious typos. For example, Moshe says "I did not take any desirous thing from them," because they had חמוד with a daled rather than חמור. The question then arises as to which is the "better " of the two texts, LXX + DSS or MT, in the particular case. In this particular instance, I think that the principle of lectio difficilior might argue in favor of the MT, because it is something that seems to be difficult and would prompt reinterpretation / "correcting", even though on deeper analysis it actually works with little problem.

Is Sefer HaTorah masculine of feminine?

Here is a dvar Torah of the type I love -- all about trup and how it impacts how we parse the pasuk -- where we need to go no further than Rashi on Chumash.

In Nitzavim, we read {Devarim 29:20}:
יט לֹא-יֹאבֶה ה', סְלֹחַ לוֹ--כִּי אָז יֶעְשַׁן אַף-יְהוָה וְקִנְאָתוֹ בָּאִישׁ הַהוּא, וְרָבְצָה בּוֹ כָּל-הָאָלָה הַכְּתוּבָה בַּסֵּפֶר הַזֶּה; וּמָחָה ה' אֶת-שְׁמוֹ, מִתַּחַת הַשָּׁמָיִם.19 the LORD will not be willing to pardon him, but then the anger of the LORD and His jealousy shall be kindled against that man, and all the curse that is written in this book shall lie upon him, and the LORD shall blot out his name from under heaven;
כ וְהִבְדִּילוֹ ה' לְרָעָה, מִכֹּל שִׁבְטֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל--כְּכֹל, אָלוֹת הַבְּרִית, הַכְּתוּבָה, בְּסֵפֶר הַתּוֹרָה הַזֶּה.20 and the LORD shall separate him unto evil out of all the tribes of Israel, according to all the curses of the covenant that is written in this book of the law.

and similarly in a bit later, in Devarim 30:
י כִּי תִשְׁמַע, בְּקוֹל ה' אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לִשְׁמֹר מִצְו‍ֹתָיו וְחֻקֹּתָיו, הַכְּתוּבָה בְּסֵפֶר הַתּוֹרָה הַזֶּה: כִּי תָשׁוּב אֶל-ה' אֱלֹהֶיךָ, בְּכָל-לְבָבְךָ וּבְכָל-נַפְשֶׁךָ. {ס}10 if thou shalt hearken to the voice of the LORD thy God, to keep His commandments and His statutes which are written in this book of the law; if thou turn unto the LORD thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul. {S}

These are the only two instances of this phrase, and it is the subject of a masoretic note to that effect.

But earlier, at the end of parshat Ki Tavo, the gender of the בספר התורה appears to be feminine, for we have זאת rather than זה. Thus, in Devarim 28:

סא גַּם כָּל-חֳלִי, וְכָל-מַכָּה, אֲשֶׁר לֹא כָתוּב, בְּסֵפֶר הַתּוֹרָה הַזֹּאת--יַעְלֵם ה' עָלֶיךָ, עַד הִשָּׁמְדָךְ.61 Also every sickness, and every plague, which is not written in the book of this law, them will the LORD bring upon thee, until thou be destroyed.

Which is it? After all, sefer is masculine, so the phrase sefer hatorah should be masculine. Rashi deals with this, and Minchas Shai takes note.

This can all be explained on the basis of the trup. Rashi writes:

that is written in this book: Heb. בְּסֵפֶר הַתּוֹרָה הַזֶּה, “written in this Torah scroll.” [Here, the word for“this” (הַזֶּה) is in the masculine form. However,] earlier, the verse says,“And also every sickness and plague… in this Torah scroll הַתּוֹרָה הַזּאֹת בְּסֵפֶר ” (Deut. 28:61), [where the word for“this” (הַזּאֹת), appearing in the identical phrase, is in the feminine form. How do we explain the difference of gender for the same word, appearing in an identical phrase in Scripture? The answer is that there in Deut. 28:61,] the הַזּאֹת, which is in the feminine form, qualifies the word הַתּוֹרָה,“Torah” [which is in the feminine form]. And [here in our verse,] the word הַזֶּה, which is in the masculine form, qualifies the word סֵפֶר, “scroll” [which is in the masculine form. How do we know that each respective mention of the word “this” is qualifying the particular word described, and not otherwise? Because in these two verses,] the cantillation symbols punctuate the words [of the phrase“this Torah scroll”] in two different ways, [as follows]: In the passage [describing] the curses [i.e., in Deut. 28: 61], the [cantillation symbol called] tipcha is placed under the word בְּסֵפֶר, [thus separating it from the next words הַתּוֹרָה הַזּאֹת,] while [the words], הַתּוֹרָה הַזּאֹת are attached to each other [also by virtue of the cantillation symbols]. Hence, [the verse] employs the הַזּאֹת [for the word “this,” because it clearly is qualifying the word“Torah,” which is in the feminine form]. However, here [in our verse], the tipcha is placed under the word הַתּוֹרָה [Thus, together with its previous conjunctive symbol, the meircha placed under the word בְּסֵפֶר, it] joins these two words, בְּסֵפֶר הַתּוֹרָה, into one attached [expression]. Accordingly, the word [“this”] qualifies the [first word in the expression, namely,] “scroll,”[the direct object in the expression“ Torah scroll,” and since the word“scroll”] is in the masculine form [thus, the qualifying word הָזֶה takes on the masculine form here]. הכתובה בספר התורה הזה: ולמעלה הוא אומר (לעיל כח, סא) בספר התורה הזאת גם כל חלי וכל מכה וגו', הזאת לשון נקבה מוסב על התורה. הזה לשון זכר מוסב על הספר, ועל ידי פסוק הטעמים הן נחלקין לשתי לשונות, בפרשת הקללות הטפחא נתונה תחת בספר, והתורה הזאת דבוקים זה לזה, לכך אמר הזאת וכאן הטפחה נתונה תחת התורה, נמצא ספר התורה דבוקים זה לזה לפיכך לשון זכר נופל אחריו, שהלשון נופל על הספר:




If I may explain, the idea is that is we look carefully at the trup of these pesukim, we will see a marked difference. Where it is sefer hatorah hazeh, the tipcha is under the word hatorah. But where it is besefer hatorah hazot, the tipcha is under besefer.

This is an important distiction because the tipcha is a disjunctive accent, which divides a phrase, while the mercha and munach are both conjunctive accents, which do not.

Therefore, we have:
Besefer HaTorah || Hazeh

vs.

Besefer || HaTorah HaZot

It then makes perfect sense. Since in Besefer HaTorah, haTorah is modifying sefer, the entire thing is a sefer. And if you want to say "this Torah sefer", it should be zeh, because sefer is lashon zachar.

On the other hand, if "this" is only going on HaTorah, then Torah is lashon nekeiva, and so it should be zot.

Indeed, compare the JPS translations of these two verses. Besefer hatorah hazeh is rendered "in this book of the law." And Besefer hatorah hazot is rendered "in the book of this law." Note the placement of the word "this" in each translation.

This is fine, though I am not entirely convinced. Natural language is sometimes weird, and defies expectation. That the trup is this way only demonstrates that the author of the trup was an expert enough in dikduk to spot this problem and irregularity, and was forced into this parsing which justifies the grammar. But the resulting phrase, "in the book of this law" seems forced. Especially given the various sefer hazehs in context.

It could be that in a natural, fluid language, words can sometimes be reanalyzed, or certain pairs of words can be joined together to form a single word unit. Just as mother-in-law should, by strict rules, be pluralized mothers-in-law, but people would say mother-in-laws; and attorney general should be pluralized attorneys general but people would say attorney generals, all because the word has become a unit which should not be divided, perhaps a common term such as sefer Torah could be considered a unit, and since it ends with kemetz heh, we should treat it as a single feminine noun which would get hazot when we want to speak about "this one". And this could creep in as an acceptable phrasing, despite the fact that in general we would focus on sefer and say that it is masculine. If so, the trup should not divide the unit in two, at that place.

I cannot prove this in this instance, nor do I have any evidence one way or the other based on analysis of other examples of this pattern. But this possibility does sit in the back of my mind.

Vayelech sources

by aliyah
rishon (Devarim 31:1)
sheni (31:4), shlishi (31:7)
revii (31:10)
chamishi (31:14)
shishi (31:20)
shevii (31:25)
maftir (31:28)
haftara (Hoshea 14)

by perek
perek 31

meforshim
Rashi, in English and Hebrew
Shadal (here and here)
Mishtadel
Daat -- with Rashi, Ramban, Seforno, Ibn Ezra, Rashbam, Rabbenu
Bachya, Midrash Rabba, Tanchuma+, Gilyonot
Gilyonot Nechama Leibovitz (Hebrew)
Tiferes Yehonasan from Rav Yonasan Eibeshitz
Toldos Yizchak Acharon, repeated from Rav Yonasan Eibeshutz
Even Shleimah -- from Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Ehrenreich
R' Saadia Gaon's Tafsir, Arabic translation of Torah (here and here)
Collected commentary of Saadia Gaon on Torah
Zohar, with English translation
Baal Haturim (HaAruch)
Rabbenu Ephraim -- nothing on Vayelech
Imrei Shafer, Rav Shlomo Kluger
Ibn Gabirol (nothing until end of Devarim)
Rabbenu Yonah -- nothing on Vayelech
Aderet Eliyahu (Gra) -- nothing on Vayelech
Mipninei Harambam -- nothing on sefer Devarim
Sefer Zikaron of Ritva -- nothing until Zot Habracha

The following meforshim at JNUL.
Ralbag (394) -- see here for Nitzavim (maybe Vayelech included?)
Chizkuni (154)
Abarbanel (405)
Shach (326)
Sefer Hachinuch (pg 178) -- nothing until the end
Aharon ben Yosef the Karaite (249)

rashi
Daat, Rashi In Hebrew (perek 31)
Judaica Press Rashi in English and Hebrew
Mizrachi, Mizrachi (316, JNUL)
Gur Aryeh (Maharal of Prague)
Berliner's Beur on Rashi (here and here)
Commentary on Rashi by Yosef of Krasnitz
R' Yisrael Isserlin (on Rashi, 17, JNUL)
Two supercommentaries on Rashi, by Chasdai Almosnino and Yaakov Kneizel
Rav Natan ben Shishon Shapira Ashkenazi (16th century), (JNUL, pg 175)
Yeriot Shlomo (Maharshal)
Moda L'Bina (Wolf Heidenheim)
Minchat Yehuda and Mekorei Rashi (in Mechokekei Yehuda)
Also see Mikraos Gedolos above, which has Rashi with Sifsei Chachamim

ramban
Daat, Ramban in Hebrew (perek 31)
R' Yitzchak Abohav's on Ramban (standalone and in a Tanach opposite Ramban) -- nothing on Vayelech
Rabbi Meir Abusaula (student of Rashba)

ibn ezra
Daat, Ibn Ezra in Hebrew (perek 31)
Mechokekei Yehudah (HebrewBooks)
R' Shmuel Motot (on Ibn Ezra, pg 51, JNUL)
Ibn Kaspi's supercommentary on Ibn Ezra, different from his commentary
Also see Mikraos Gedolos above, which has Ibn Ezra with Avi Ezer

targum
Targum Onkelos opposite Torah text
Shadal's Ohev Ger on Targum Onkelos
Avnei Tzion -- two commentaries on Onkelos
Or Hatargum on Onkelos
Commentary on Targum Yonatan and Targum Yerushalmi
Septuagint (Greek, English)

masorah
Taamei Masoret -- nothing on Vayelech
Rama (but based on alphabet, not parsha)

midrash
Midrash Rabba at Daat (31)
Midrash Tanchuma at Daat (31)
Devarim Rabba, with commentaries
Midrash Tanchuma with commentary of Etz Yosef and Anaf Yosef
Commentary on Midrash Rabba by R' Naftali Hirtz b'R' Menachem -- nothing on Vayelech
Matat-Kah on Midrash Rabba -- nothing until end of Devarim
Sifrei, with commentary of the Gra
Nefesh Yehonasan by Rav Yonasan Eibeshutz

haftarah -- for Shabbos Shuva (Hoshea 14; Yoel 2:11; Micha 7:18)
collective on haftarah
As a haftara in a chumash Devarim, with Malbim and Ibn Ezra
Haftarah in Gutnick Edition

Hoshea 14
In a separate Mikraos Gedolos, with Targum, Rashi, Mahari Kara, Radak, Ibn Ezra, Metzudat David.
Rashis in English
Daat, which includes Yalkut Shimoni, Radak, Ibn Ezra
Aharon ben Yosef the Karaite

Yoel 2
In a separate Mikraos Gedolos, with Targum, Rashi, Mahari Kara, Radak, Ibn Ezra, Metzudat David.
Rashis in English
Daat, which includes Yalkut Shimoni, Ibn Ezra
Aharon ben Yosef the Karaite

Michah 7
In a separate Mikraos Gedolos, with Targum, Rashi, Mahari Kara, Radak, Ibn Ezra, Metzudat David.
Rashis in English
Daat, which includes Yalkut Shimoni, Ibn Ezra
Aharon ben Yosef the Karaite

Is Rabbi Avigdor Miller, zatza"l, Responsible For Authentic Judaism?

In the first perek of Pirkei Avot, we read:
א,יא אבטליון אומר, חכמים, היזהרו בדבריכם--שמא תחובו חובת גלות, ותגלו למקום המים הרעים, וישתו התלמידים הבאים אחריכם וימותו, ונמצא שם שמיים מתחלל.
Avtalyon's message is that Rabbis should be careful with their words, because students who follow after them might stumble and end up causing a tremendous chillul Hashem.

There is a certain blog which bills itself as presenting authentic Judaism, in which the blogger presents himself as following after Rabbi Avigdor Miller, ztz"l. I haven't really heard much from Rabbi Miller, so I don't know firsthand if heated condemnations of others were of Rabbi Miller's style, but there are some commenters on the Hirhurim thread about this who say that this was indeed his style, and that some of the ideas are indeed representative. Thus:
This guy hasn't said much that Rav Avigdor Miller didn't, although AFAIK RAM never attacked the Rav in such personal terms. However, most of the content and tone is perfectly in line with what one hears on RAM's tapes.

RAM is revered in the yeshiva world as a forthright, outspoken talmid chacham and gadol. Many rebbeim and mashgichim emulate him, and I certainly heard plenty of this sort of stuff in my mainstream black hat yeshiva, contra Mark's statement that "those who seek to lump the mainstream Chareidi world together with him, are guilty of Sinas Chinam to the highest degree."
On the other hand, there are just so many idiots around, and if one had to be careful of all of them, one could not say anything. I discussed this back in 2008 with another story involving an idiotic student of none other than Rabbi Avigdor Miller. I cite myself, fixing a few typos:
About a decade ago, my parents encountered a fellow who was a big follower of Rav Avigdor Miller. And he was "boasting" of how big a talmid he was. For example, Rav Miller declared in one of his lectures, about the evils of television, "I want you to take your television and throw it out of the window." Now, this fellow lived on the fifth floor of an apartment building. But he unplugged his television, took it to his window, and literally tossed it out the window, to shatter on the pavement below. He said he looked first to make sure no one was standing below, but in the meantime, how did he really know that someone would not walk out of the apartment at that time?

Rav Avigdor Miller certainly did not mean for his listeners to take his words literally, but rather they were said for dramatic, and rhetorical effect. After all, he was a very talented orator. He wanted to drive home the point that his listeners should get rid of their televisions, and thus rid their homes of its dangerous spiritual influence. But had this overly-literal fellow actually hit someone, well then, in the good-old-days he might well be sent into galus. And then, as per the din, his rebbe could be sent to the Ir Miklat with him. Thus, שמא תחובו חובת גלות.
As I wrote there, I felt that the fault in that case lies with the idiots, who misinterpret his words. And I drew comparisons to certain folks who run with certain Gedolim's words, sometimes also giving them misinterpretations. And suggested that there might just be an obligation to take control of their words, to make certain that they are not misinterpreted or overapplied.

In the present instance, I don't know whether this blogger knew Rabbi Avigdor Miller personally, or just listened to many of his tapes. And perhaps Rabbi Miller was somewhat entitled to use this style, because he presumably had not only form but substance. When he condemned something, he could also back it up with sources and argue it. And perhaps he did it because it made for an "inspirational" speech, in which people are convinced that their path is the correct Torah path and thus are drawn closer to their Judaism, to Torah, and to Hashem. The best defense is a good offense, and all that. Even so, perhaps it was not appropriate to send out the message in this way, because look at the results.

Many people, with different practices, think their Judaism is authentic Judaism, or else they wouldn't be practicing it. The Nanachs certainly think their Judaism is authentic. Lubavitch certainly thinks their Judaism is authentic Judaism, and is the proper and ideal derech. XGH thinks that various brands of Judaism are authentic Judaism, including his own. Esser Agaroth thinks that mustaches are "not Jewish". Teimanim -- as least the few I've encountered -- are notorious for thinking that their derech is the proper derech, and best represents authentic Judaism, such that everyone else should adopt it. Indeed, Rav Ovadia Yosef declared that Moshe Rabbenu was a Sefardi and that when mashiach comes, he would pasken in accordance with Sefardi halacha!

So this is just one more fellow who thinks that his particular narrow and fringe brand of Judaism is authentic Judaism. The difference is partly that it is to the exclusion of everything else -- even Rav Ovadia Yosef allows nowadays for Ashkenazim to follow Ashkenazi halacha, and for real Breslovers to visit Uman. But it is mostly that while thinking his is the only way, he also generates a lot of heat, and his blog seems dedicated just to attacking those who don't subscribe entirely to his particular views. Such that it crosses the line into extreme sinas chinam. And he does not seem to have the substance to back it up, just the heat.

So perhaps Rav Avigdor Miller should be held partially responsible for this phenomenon, and this particular blogger's views. People will echo their rebbe, and he was apparently putting out this strident message on tapes heard by masses and masses of people. And he knew he was an inspirational speaker.

Similarly, should we lay the blame for modern day Lubavitch meshichists upon the Rebbe, zatza"l? He certainly endorsed the idea that this was the very last generation, in which mashiach would arrive. And meshichists can point you to some persuasive statements that the Rebbe made about mashiach, and about his father-in-law. Even if there is a defense for the Lubavitcher Rebbe holding this, the talmidim who followed him drank the evil water and are causing a tremendous embarrassment and chillul Hashem.

The same for people today, such as Rav Moshe Shapiro or Rav Moshe Meiselman. Should he be responsible for the form and substance of those who consider themselves his students? I would think he should be, to a large degree. Thus, if he does or does not provide direction, perhaps Rav Moshe Meiselman should be somewhat responsible for the conduct and writings of Freelance Kiruv Maniac, or Rav Shapiro for Rabbi Schmeltzer and his Chaim beEmunasam.

Tuesday, September 08, 2009

Interesting Posts and Articles #207

  1. Read the first chapter of the next Wheel of Time book, The Gathering Storm, for free on their website. More details here.

  2. Blog in Dm takes note of a new intellectual property pesak, also noted by Vos Iz Neias, in an article at Arutz Sheva, that simcha hall owners must pay royalties for music.

  3. Life in Israel on a the policy of a seminary in Israel that girls cannot get engaged (/ date?) during their year; and of a girl told at her engagement party not to come back to school.

  4. Emes veEmunah on a kiruv con involving Ohr Sameach and Birthright. I don't really see what the big deal is.

  5. On the Main Line tries to define a maskil.

  6. Hebrew Books has a list of Seforim they have scanned in so far in September. One interesting entry is She'elot uTeshuvot min Hashamayim.

  7. Wolfish Musings has thoughts about a case, raised at Matzav, of someone lying about her age, and whether it is grounds for breaking a shidduch. What about concealing from a yeshiva that one is a blogger, by remaining anonymous? There are obvious answers, but there are also often unappreciated nuances.

  8. At Rationalist Judaism, Rabbi Slifkin "wonders" whether Maharal was a creative genius or an unoriginal redactor.

  9. The Jewish Worker considers whether the chareidi world is turning against the Edah Chareidis.

  10. Avakesh notes a board game about the seige of Jerusalem.

  11. Here at parshablog, I consider whether the Bar Yochni bird was an ostrich, evaluating some of the sources Rabbi Slifkin discusses in his Sacred Monsters, but using a different methodology and coming to a somewhat different conclusion.

Does Arami Oved Avi refer to a wandering / poor Aramean, or to Lavan who sought to destroy?

This post deals with an interpretation of Arami Oved Avi by Ibn Ezra and Radak which goes against the classic midrashic interpretation, and the reaction of two supercommentaries of Rashi to this "daring" interpretation. What comes into play is whether Ibn Ezra and Radak can claim to have absolute knowledge of Hebrew to be able to declare the midrashic interpretation to not work out according to the rules of dikduk; and whether one can argue on midrash, as they are doing, if after the midrashic interpretation goes all the way back to Sinai! It could also be that as supercommentators of Rashi, they are simply defending Rashi's interpretation as one of peshat.

At the start of Ki Tavo, we hear of Arami Oved Avi:
ה וְעָנִיתָ וְאָמַרְתָּ לִפְנֵי ה' אֱלֹהֶיךָ, אֲרַמִּי אֹבֵד אָבִי, וַיֵּרֶד מִצְרַיְמָה, וַיָּגָר שָׁם בִּמְתֵי מְעָט; וַיְהִי-שָׁם, לְגוֹי גָּדוֹל עָצוּם וָרָב.5 And thou shalt speak and say before the LORD thy God: 'A wandering Aramean was my father, and he went down into Egypt, and sojourned there, few in number; and he became there a nation, great, mighty, and populous.
Rashi cites the famous midrash:
An Aramean [sought to] destroy my forefather: [The declarer] mentions [here] the kind deeds of the Omnipresent [by stating]:“An Aramean [sought to] destroy my forefather.” That is, Laban, when he pursued Jacob, sought to uproot [i.e., annihilate] all [the Jews], and since he intended to do so, the Omnipresent considered it as though he had actually done it (Sifrei 26:5), for [regarding] the pagan nations of the world, the Holy One, Blessed is He, considers the [mere] intention [of an evil deed] as [being equivalent to] the actual perpetration [of the deed itself]. — [Yerushalmi Pe’ah 1:1 at end]
ארמי אבד אבי: מזכיר חסדי המקום ארמי אובד אבי, לבן בקש לעקור את הכל, כשרדף אחר יעקב. ובשביל שחשב לעשות, חשב לו המקום כאלו עשה, שאומות העולם חושב להם הקב"ה מחשבה [רעה] כמעשה:

The Sifrei indeed says something like this:
ואמרת לפני ה׳ אלהיך ארמי אובד אבי • מלמד שלא ירד יעקב לארם אלא
ב)(לאובד) • ומעלה על לבן הארמי כאלו איבדו)
where Gra emends to להאבד. Though I would assert that there is room for movement here. But the simple reading is that אובד here is being taken as a transitive verb. ("Bill grew tomatoes" is transitive, while "Bill grew" is intransitive.) And so it is being taken as a statement that "An Aramean destroyed, or caused to wander, my father Yaakov.

Ibn Ezra takes exception to this. He writes:
אובד אבי -
מלת אובד מהפעלים שאינם יוצאים ואילו היה ארמי על לבן היה הכתוב אומר: מאביד או מאבד.
ועוד: מה טעם לאמר לבן בקש להאביד אבי וירד מצרימה ולבן לא סבב לרדת אל מצרים, והקרוב: שארמי הוא יעקב, כאלו אמר הכתוב: כאשר היה אבי בארם היה אובד.
והטעם: עני בלא ממון.
וכן: תנו שכר לאובד והעד: ישתה וישכח רישו.
והנה הוא ארמי אובד היה אבי.
והטעם: כי לא ירשתי הארץ מאבי כי עני היה כאשר בא אל ארם, גם גר היה במצרים והוא היה במתי מעט, ואחר כן שב לגוי גדול ואתה ה' הוצאתנו מעבדות ותתן לנו ארץ טובה.
ואל יטעון טוען: איך יקרא יעקב ארמי?
והנה כמוהו יתרא הישמעאלי והוא ישראלי, כי כן כתוב.
Radak as well endorses this position. Thus:
והוא בודד כשהוא
מן הקל, כי פירוש פסוק ארמי אבד אבי יעקב אבי היה
אובד וקראו ארמי, לפי שגר בארם ושם היה אובד כי בצער
גדול היה שם עשרים שנה כמו שהתרעם על לבן ואמר הייתי ביום
אכלני חרב וקרח בלילה (בראשית ל א , מ . ) וכאשר
הפעל הזה מן הכבדים הוא עובר
That is, there is a difference between the kal and kaved patterns of this verb. The kal is intransitive, while the kaved is the transitive. And not only does this make sense grammatically, but other things in context or elsewhere work to demonstrate that this is the peshat. Thus Radak shows how it manifests in the actual story with Yaakov and Lavan, and Ibn shows how it fits in with the general theme being developed in the mikra bikkurim that we started out small with nothing. So dikduk plus working out with message make for good peshat.

As I noted elsewhere, Rashi's peshat, which is based on Sifrei, works well with the trup. Because the trup, which is Pashta Munach Zakef-Katon creates a situation of:
Arami | Oved Avi
as opposed to Mahpach Pashta Zakef Katon, which would be
Arami Oved | Avi

Of course, that trup could have been written to be in line with the midrash, rather than the peshat.

I would agree with Ibn Ezra and Radak as to the peshat meaning. And I would not discard Rashi's explanation as wrong. Rather, it is midrash, rather than peshat. And that is fine. Midrash need not always work out in accordance with the strict dictates of dikduk.

Mizrachi and Gur Aryeh both strive to defend Rashi. I am not convinced that they succeeded, or even that a defense based on dikduk is needed.

But Mizrachi writes about this, noting the Sifrei, as well as Ibn Ezra and Radak. His motivation is that since this is a midrash, from Chazal, this was transmitted via tradition, one man to the next, all the way back to Moshe Rabbenu who heard it from the Almighty, that the Arami is Lavan and than the Oved here is a transitive rather than intransitive verb, such that Lavan sought to destroy my father.

Of course, I would interject that there are other weighty opinions that do not consider every midrash to be of this sort, as a tradition all the way back to Har Sinai.

Mizrachi seeks to undermine Radak's grammatical point by pointing out that in Radak's own introduction, he writes that our knowledge of the Hebrew language is incomplete and reconstructed from the 24 books of Tanach, from Mishnaic Hebrew, and the like. So there could be a meaning which we would not know from other Biblical evidence. And so oved can be a transitive verb, and our unbroken midrashic tradition can be the true meaning of the pasuk, even on a peshat level.

This is of course true. Anything is possible. See for a practical example the kal passive, and how people arrogantly claim something is impossible and outside the bounds of Hebrew grammar, without focusing on this possibility. Still, we have other forms, namely kaved, to get where we want, and no evidence of this particular meaning within this form. And it is not just that, but bringing in Lavan out of left field does not seem very peshat-like, while Ibn Ezra's explanation works quite well in terms of the peshat.

Mizrachi also points to a pasuk towards the end of Ki Savo, in perek 28, which reads:

כ יְשַׁלַּח ה' בְּךָ אֶת-הַמְּאֵרָה אֶת-הַמְּהוּמָה, וְאֶת-הַמִּגְעֶרֶת, בְּכָל-מִשְׁלַח יָדְךָ, אֲשֶׁר תַּעֲשֶׂה--עַד הִשָּׁמֶדְךָ וְעַד-אֲבָדְךָ מַהֵר, מִפְּנֵי רֹעַ מַעֲלָלֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר עֲזַבְתָּנִי.20 The LORD will send upon thee cursing, discomfiture, and rebuke, in all that thou puttest thy hand unto to do, until thou be destroyed, and until thou perish quickly; because of the evil of thy doings, whereby thou hast forsaken Me.

which he interprets as until he is אבד you. This is not how JPS chooses to render it; instead, it is "until you perish quickly." Indeed, the verb pattern of hishamedcha which precedes it implies a passive, which then takes an actor out of the picture. Mizrachi seems to explicitly rule out that possibility.

On the other hand, compare with other instances of שמד and אבד in this perek. In particular:
מח וְעָבַדְתָּ אֶת-אֹיְבֶיךָ, אֲשֶׁר יְשַׁלְּחֶנּוּ יְהוָה בָּךְ, בְּרָעָב וּבְצָמָא וּבְעֵירֹם, וּבְחֹסֶר כֹּל; וְנָתַן עֹל בַּרְזֶל, עַל-צַוָּארֶךָ, עַד הִשְׁמִידוֹ, אֹתָךְ.48 therefore shalt thou serve thine enemy whom the LORD shall send against thee, in hunger, and in thirst, and in nakedness, and in want of all things; and he shall put a yoke of iron upon thy neck, until he have destroyed thee.

where there is an actor; as well as:

סג וְהָיָה כַּאֲשֶׁר-שָׂשׂ יְהוָה עֲלֵיכֶם, לְהֵיטִיב אֶתְכֶם וּלְהַרְבּוֹת אֶתְכֶם--כֵּן יָשִׂישׂ יְהוָה עֲלֵיכֶם, לְהַאֲבִיד אֶתְכֶם וּלְהַשְׁמִיד אֶתְכֶם; וְנִסַּחְתֶּם מֵעַל הָאֲדָמָה, אֲשֶׁר-אַתָּה בָא-שָׁמָּה לְרִשְׁתָּהּ.63 And it shall come to pass, that as the LORD rejoiced over you to do you good, and to multiply you; so the LORD will rejoice over you to cause you to perish, and to destroy you; and ye shall be plucked from off the land whither thou goest in to possess it.
But these are different verb patterns, and I am not convinced that this pasuk Mizrachi cited is evidence that אבד in the kal pattern is a transitive verb.

Mizrachi also argues (see inside) with Ibn Ezra's assertion that Lavan trying to destroy my father is out of place and unconnected to context. (I would interject that midrashically, Tg Yonatan elsewhere understands that Lavan went down to Egypt under the name of Bilaam, which handily explains how this all fits in. But Rashi, and Mizrachi, are not considering this possibility.) Who says that there needs to be a connection, other than that it is a chesed that Hashem did? Though in the end, he sort of finds a way to work it into the context and flow.

Even so, I agree with the thematic point Ibn Ezra is making, and that if one reads it in Ibn Ezra's way, it advances the theme (of rags to riches) much more, while with Rashi and Sifrei it does not.

The Maharal mi-Prague, in Gur Aryeh, also comes to Rashi's defense and attacks Ibn Ezra and Radak. He leads off explaining just how it does work out in context -- that it is a separate detailing of the chesed that Hashem did. This in answer to Ibn Ezra's left-field comment.

Meanwhile, Ibn Ezra wants to differ from the chachmei haEmet, and say that it should have said מאבד אבי and that as written, it means that he was without anything. But the Maharal does not think very much of Ibn Ezra's proof, but that one can ask some very good questions on Ibn Ezra.

One can answer Ibn Ezra that אובד is indeed not a transitive verb, but is a noun. Because Lavan always thought how to destroy my father, he is the destroyer of my father. Thus, it is not that an Aramean destroyed my father, but that an Aramean was a destroyer of my father. But if it said מאבד, it would imply that it was a one time effort. And this is on the pattern of {Bemidbar 24:20}:

כ וַיַּרְא, אֶת-עֲמָלֵק, וַיִּשָּׂא מְשָׁלוֹ, וַיֹּאמַר: רֵאשִׁית גּוֹיִם עֲמָלֵק, וְאַחֲרִיתוֹ עֲדֵי אֹבֵד.20 And he looked on Amalek, and took up his parable, and said: Amalek was the first of the nations; but his end shall come to destruction.
which Radak wrote in the name of the scholar Rabbi Yaakov ben Eliezer; and its meaning is that he always thought to destroy him, and therefore he is called the אובד of his. For in many places the harm caused by some thing is called by the name of the thing. And a stone, where it rests in a place where it can cause people to stumble is called a michshol, not a machshil. So too here, he is called the oved of my father because he is the אבידת יעקב. And so too in many places the actor of some thing is called by the name of the thing.

Furthermore, baalei dikduk often write about words that it is a strange word. So why should they be bothered here if they think it does not work out according to their dikduk? And he gives an example of a word -- ויסר -- needing to be explained as transitive though it is usually instransitive. {See Ibn Ezra's explanation of ויסר there, in his commentary on Shemot 14; and what he writes in his commentary of Bereishit 8; Imy impression is that Ibn Ezra is not saying that this is a kal which is usually intransitive but suddenly yotzei, but that it is from the binyan hakaved hanosaf and is strange because of a vowel substitution.}

Further, there are other examples of אובד which seems to be transitive, even though Ibn Ezra forces an intransitive explanation. Thus, in Devarim 32:28:

כח כִּי-גוֹי אֹבַד עֵצוֹת, הֵמָּה; {ר} וְאֵין בָּהֶם, תְּבוּנָה. {ס}28 For they are a nation void of counsel, and there is no understanding in them.

which the Maharal feels should be a transitive verb, even though Ibn Ezra forces himself to explain otherwise, writing:
כי גוי אובד עצות -
הנכון שזה הגוי הם צרי ישראל.

ומלת אבד -
שם התאר והיא סמוכה, על כן נפתח הבי"ת וידוע כי מלת אבד מהפעלים העומדים, רק פירוש עצות שב אל אבד, כמו: נובלת עליה.
וכן: ותאבדו דרך, שהוא סמוך אל דרך והנה השכיל המתרגם שאמר: מאבדי עצה.
making it into an intransitive; but ultimately agreeing with the metargem who renders it transitive.

I would disagree with Maharal here and say that Ibn Ezra's explanation there is compelling rather than forced; and that the metargem had to switch it to a different mishkal in order to make it transitive, but this was cleverness in making the translated text easier.

And, he continues, Ibn Ezra and Radak should have explained the word in this way and should not have differed from the words of the Chachamim and the Targumist.

And he continues with further arguments how it can grammatically work out -- he only sought to destroy my father, but did not succeed, so it should stay as an intransitive.

Then, he turns to context -- what cause is there for mentioning Lavan's attempts to destroy my father? In answer: Lavan wanted to entirely destroy my father entirely, but Hashem saved him, and he descended to Egypt. And that it does not mention Hashem saving him from the hand of the Aramean as it mentions Hashem redeeming them from the hand of Egypt, this is because it does not want to make two good things. The point is that he was in these various dire straits and now he was given a wonderful land. It is starting with genai and ending with shevach.

Thus, he concludes, the words of Chazal are correct. And if it is difficult for you to believe that Lavan was trying to destroy Yaakov, despite chasing after him (because this was not necessarily to destroy him), see









the sefer Gevurat Hashem on the Hagaddah shel Pesach, and there (see here, I suppose, though I don't see it there) you can see it explained with clear proofs.

However, Ibn Ezra's explanation has neither hands nor feet, for he wrote that Yaakov is called an Aramean, and why should he be called an Aramean, where Avraham was called Avraham the Ivri -- even though he was in Eretz Yisrael, he was called by the initial name. So why does it call Yaakov an Aramean, and why does it not say "In Aram, my father was אובד?" And this question is greater than the question that he asks on our Rabbis, za"l, that it should have written מאבד. And furthermore, in which place do we find that the meaning of Oved means pauper? For the proofs which he brings from תנו שכר לאובד is no proof.

{This based on Mishlei 31:6:

תְּנוּ-שֵׁכָר לְאוֹבֵד; וְיַיִן, לְמָרֵי נָפֶשׁ.6 Give strong drink unto him that is ready to perish, and wine unto the bitter in soul;
ז יִשְׁתֶּה, וְיִשְׁכַּח רִישׁוֹ; וַעֲמָלוֹ, לֹא יִזְכָּר-עוֹד.7 Let him drink, and forget his poverty, and remember his misery no more. {P}


for what is written after it that "he shall forget his רישו, and his effort he will remember no more," the explanation of this is not lack of money, but rather the explanation of "he shall forget his רישו" is all that he lacks. And behold, anyone who lacks something is called a ריש; all the more so when he is lacking more. But for someone who lacks money to be called an אובד, this is simply not so!

And further, this that Ibn Ezra writes {in explaining the import of Arami Oved Avi}, "for I have not inherited the land from my fathers; for behold when Yaakov was in the land he was lacking, without clothing {?}", this matter has neither {good} taste nor smell, for even though when he was in Aram he was lacking money, it was possible that he would have the money when he returned from Padan Aram, for he was a very wealthy man. And what of it that he was lacking in Aram?

So ends my rough summary of the points of Mizrachi and Maharal mi-Prague. Now, my brief thoughts on the matter.

Firstly, I am somewhat biased towards Radak and Ibn Ezra. Seeing them attacked for what seem to be reasons of frumkeit, that they are not entitled to hold their positions because of pious concerns, sparks that reaction in me. It also makes me tend to view those who attack Ibn Ezra and Radak's position as likely to be biased, and therefore not really evaluating the merits of either side appropriately. Despite all this, I do think that Radak and Ibn Ezra are correct, more or less.

Let me be frank. I think that Radak and Ibn Ezra would laugh at many of the suggestions raised by Mizrachi and Maharal. Radak and Ibn Ezra are real grammarians, and the suggestions being raised are farfetched and implausible. It seems somewhat possible to me that continued attempts to explain Rashi's concerns as peshat, where Rashi passes midrash off as peshat, makes one view midrashic concerns as real peshat / dikduk concerns.

It may be that there is some way to reconcile the midrash with a grammatical reading of the verse. But the midrash saw Arami, connected it to the famous Lavan haArami, and worked from there. But this is not the most straightforward reading of the verse, that one would arrive at without the midrash. Neither Maharal nor Mizrachi would likely be endorsing this explanation if the Sifrei, and thus what they consider the tradition miSinai, were at stake.

We have no real Biblical evidence that אובד works as a transitive verb, and we have transitive versions which are used, though not used in this instance. And Lavan trying to destroy Yaakov, as opposed to e.g. Esav trying to destroy Yaakov, or Yosef being sold, or Dinah being captured, or Avraham fighting against the kings, or many other chasadim, seems random. I don't like random. There is no cause for it in context. Meanwhile, to say that it describes my forefather's sorry state before Hashem's salvation works out wonderfully in the context.

Radak and Ibn Ezra are not being driven by trying to preserve midrashic tradition. That is not what the process of peshat commentary is about. It is about looking at the text, mustering the tools of dikduk and context, and deciding what the text most probably means. A reference to Lavan is not likely, so it is not true that Radak and Ibn Ezra should have found some way to work it out.

And many of the suggestions they posit are quite far-fetched and irregular. That does not recommend a peshat commentary. Thus, Mizrachi suggests a pasuk later in Ki Tavo which is אובד in transitive. But this is quite close context, and one would think that expert grammarians such as Ibn Ezra and Radak would have picked up this close example. Yet they didn't, and they should not have, for we see from context that it was likely not intended as a transitive verb. And Mizrachi's suggestion that Radak should have humbly recognized what he said in his own introduction, that knowledge of the Hebrew language is not complete -- sure, anything is possible, and for all we know Bereishit Bara Elokim Et Hashamayim veEt HaAretz could really translate to "In the middle, God sipped coffee and tea." And each of these words are simply unattested to in these meanings attested to in the 24 books of Tanach we possess. So anything is theoretically possible. Should this be driving a pashtan? No, for if so, he would not be able to say anything about any verse; or else he could say anything about any verse. The existence of a midrash should not be a driving factor, if midrash need not be peshat.

What about Maharal? He suggests that it is a noun, rather than a transitive verb. And that a noun can be called based on what it causes, rather than as the causer. And it still works out perfectly with the trup, I would add! Also theoretically possible, and a very creative end-run around the rules of dikduk. As Ibn Ezra notes elsewhere, there is no such thing as a present-tense verb in Biblical Hebrew. There is the neutral-tense verb, which is really simply the noun. Ani Shomer means "I am watching..." or else "I am a watchman." The noun is the neutral tense verb. And based on context, that neutral tense can also be the present tense or future tense. So of course one can claim that it is the noun rather than the verb. But by doing so, one can make an end-run around any troublesome verb, and make it mean what you want it do mean. There would not be -- at least in the neutral tense -- transitive or instransitive, or causitive or passive. With enough creativity, it can mean whatever you want it to mean. Just declare it a noun!

But reading the pasuk, it does not really seem to be functioning as a noun. Forget the creative reinterpretation which makes it unlikely, the awkwardness of the construction makes it unlikely. Should a pashtan seize on it as the peshat meaning of the pasuk? Not unless he is biased towards justifying the midrashic reading, and he is ideally not biased in this way. (They would argue that he should be biased, since it is "possible" plus we have a Sinaitic tradition. But not every midrash is mipi haGevurah, some say; and even if it is, not every midrash is peshat.)

The idea that Lavan didn't actually carry it out, so it should be in the intransitive form is justified, is creative; but creative is not necessarily true or plausible. Do we have any other examples of this phenomenon? This is a midrashist playing with dikduk and calling it peshat. I have a similar reaction to the claim that it was decided that it be a noun because of continuous effort, rather than a one-time effort. This is creative, but I don't think it would be convincing to pashtan grammarians such as Ibn Ezra and Radak, and for good reason. Though we do have certain other forms (such as imperfect) to denote continuous action.

In terms of the questions on Ibn Ezra based on meaning, some seem to me to be good, and some not so good. Even the "good" ones are not as convincing to me as they appear to be to the Maharal. Because sometimes textual interpretations have difficulties, but they are still on the whole better than the alternatives. Despite Yaakov being able to buy the land on his return, once he was no longer a pauper, the point and theme was to stress how he was wandering about, and was not settled yet in the land. Why he would be called an Arami does not really trouble me; many objections can be raised, and are raised, on minor debateable points by midrashically inclined commentators. That does not make them solid peshat concerns. And even where there are solid peshat concerns, those can often be the result of the fine-grained peshat decisions of the particular commentator, but another explanation can be put forth which obviates those solid concerns and not resorting to farfetched midrash and dikduk.

Indeed, I would agree with Shadal, somewhat, who said:
ה ] אבי : כולל כל האבות כאחד שהיו תועים מגוי אל גוי , והראשון בא מארם , וקרובין לזה דברי הרשב " ם
and with Rashbam, who said:

ארמי אובד אבי -
אבי אברהם ארמי היה, אובד וגולה מארץ ארם. כדכתיב: לך לך מארצך.
וכדכתיב ויהי כאשר התעו אותי אלהים מבית אבי - לשון אובד ותועה אחד הם באדם הגולה, כדכתיב: תעיתי כשה אובד בקש עבדך.
צאן אובדות היו עמי. רועיהם התעום, כלומר מארץ נכריה באו אבותינו לארץ הזאת ונתנה הקב"ה לנו.
Where Maharal focused his attack on the idea of it being Yaakov who was the Arami Oved, he did not focus on Rashbam, who agrees but makes it Avraham. And he did not anticipate Shadal, who came later.

Indeed, historically the patriarchal wanderings may have come at about the same time as general Aramean migrations. And Avraham came from Aram. He was indeed a wandering Aramean. And it could mean Avraham, Yitchak, Yaakov, and perhaps even the shevatim. They came initially from Aram, and are called Arameans since they did not assume the name of their destination, as they never permanently settled there. So my forefathers were wandering Arameans. And there wanderings took them to Egypt. And so on and so forth. We can make them paupers, or wanderers, and answer some of Maharal's questions. And eventually they were redeemed from Egypt and because plentiful and inherited the entire land.

It works out perfectly, or near perfectly. I say Ibn Ezra, Radak, Rashbam, and Shadal win. Of course, Mizrachi and Maharal cluttered the page with impressive seeming arguments, and those who don't have an ear for dikduk and peshat may well be convinced of the opposite position. I still say that Ibn Ezra, Radak et al have not been toppled.

Monday, September 07, 2009

Authentic Judaism?

Maybe if we give him all the attention he craves, he will just go away. Enough people have been giving him attention, even to simply say that he does not deserve attention.

Of course, he does not deserve attention. The posts there are inane, as if written by someone not entirely sane. And it is just name calling, rather than substantive points. Who cares about what he writes?

Having one's blog name showing up in the top hits of a Google search is not such an impressive feat. Search for Hirhurim and the Hirhurim blog comes up. Search for Parsha Blog and Parshablog will show up. Search for Little Green Footballs and Little Green Footballs will come up. What is an impressive feat is having something relating to your topic come up. Searching for Parsha, admittedly part of my blog name, makes Parshablog come up. And for a while I was the top hit for Zohar. That is impressive, and is an "authentic" claim to fame.

Nobody searches for Authentic Judaism. And hardly anybody writes about it as a phrase -- less than 10,000 hits on google, if you enclose the phrase in quotation marks. If he was the top hit for Judaism, that would be something.

At any rate, see Hirhurim's post on Authentic Judaism.

Oh! Nuts Rosh Hashanah gift giveaway

The friendly folks at Oh! Nuts contacted me and offered the following gift giveaway for Rosh Hashanah.

There are three ways to win:
  1. Go to the Oh Nuts rosh hashanah gifts page. Choose your favorite Rosh Hashanah Gift and leave a comment on this blog post with the name of the gift. On Thursday, Sept 10, I will pick a random winner and Oh! Nuts will send them a gift.

  2. You can go to the oh nuts facebook page and write on the wall your favorite Rosh Hashanah Gift.

  3. You can enter byt following @ohnuts and can Tweet " Win a free Rosh Hashanah Gift from http://bit.ly/2OwulF Follow @ohnuts & Retweet to enter. "

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