Friday, July 14, 2006

parshat Pinchas: Chamber or "Belly"?

Towards the end of parshat Balak {beMidbar 25:8}, we encounter the following interesting pasuk:

ז וַיַּרְא, פִּינְחָס בֶּן-אֶלְעָזָר, בֶּן-אַהֲרֹן, הַכֹּהֵן; וַיָּקָם מִתּוֹךְ הָעֵדָה, וַיִּקַּח רֹמַח בְּיָדוֹ. 7 And when Phinehas, the son of Eleazar, the son of Aaron the priest, saw it, he rose up from the midst of the congregation, and took a spear in his hand.
ח וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה, וַיִּדְקֹר אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם--אֵת אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל, וְאֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ; וַתֵּעָצַר, הַמַּגֵּפָה, מֵעַל, בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל. 8 And he went after the man of Israel into the chamber, and thrust both of them through, the man of Israel, and the woman through her belly. So the plague was stayed from the children of Israel.
The two words highlighted in red are remarkably similar, and we would expect their translation to also be remarkably similar. But, as one may see from this JPS translation, the first is rendered "the chamber" while the second is rendered "her belly."

This accords with Tg. Onkelos's translation of the verse, as well as with Rashi. And if we trust Shadal's judgement in matters such as these, the nikkud and the trup accords with this as well - that the second קֳבָתָהּ means "her belly" rather than "her tent."

If so, how can we account for this divergence in meaning between similarly structured words? Quite simply, poetic word choice, in order to create an echo effect. Or perhaps this was placed deliberately to hint at other meanings. The verse then shouts from the rooftops, Darsheni!!

Ibn Ezra, I suppose with differing grammatical judgement, translates both as "tent" (though he lists female anatomy for the latter as a non-midrashic alternative, labelling the various miracles as midrash). That is, first Pinchas entered Zimri's tent and killed Zimri. Then he entered Cozbi's tent - presumably, she was with Zimri's relatives - and killed Cozbi.

Shadal says the same thing:

אל קבתה : לדעת בעלי הנקוד והטעמים קבתה איננה ענין קבה, אבל (כדעת אנקלוס) ענין נקבוּת , ולפי הפשט היה ראוי להטעים: ויבא אחר איש ישראל אל הקבה וידקר את שניהם את איש ישראל.

That is, while the nikkud and trup accords with a meaning of female anatomy, the baalei nikkud and baalei hateamin were post-Talmudic (as he lays out in his vikuach al chochmat hakabbalah), and thus he feels he may revocalize and rewrite the cantillantion. As such, he suggests an alternate trup division of the pasuk. That is, the pause should be after killing the Ish Yisrael, that is Zimri.

Thus, something like:

וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה, וַיִּדְקֹר אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם--אֵת אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל
And he went after the Israelite man into his tent -- and he killed both of them -- the Israelite man
וְאֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ
and the woman in her tent

There seems a bit of awkwardness here, with the interjection of אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם.

Let us now turn to consider some of the midrashim, and how they arise from the pesukim. In Sanhedrin 82, Rav Nachman citing Rav brings a pasuk in Mishlei to bear on the incident. However, as I have demonstrated often in the past, the methodology of such midrashim is to interpret a foreign verse to provide details about the local incident, but at the same time interpreting some local pasuk as well to match these details. This local reinterpretation is quite often not made overt.

The gemara in Sanhedrin:
R. Nahman said in Rab's name: What is meant by, "A greyhound [zarzir mathnaim, lit, 'energetic of loins']: an he goat also [tayish]; and a king, against whom there is no rising up?" — That wicked man, [sc. Zimri] cohabited four hundred and twenty-four times that day, and Phinehas waited for his strength to weaken, not knowing that [God is] a King, against whom there is no rising up.
That is, in Mishlei 30:31, we read:
לא זַרְזִיר מָתְנַיִם אוֹ-תָיִשׁ; וּמֶלֶךְ, אַלְקוּם עִמּוֹ. 31 The greyhound; the he-goat also; and the king, against whom there is no rising up.
Interpreting this verse outside of its local context (that is, applying omnisignificance), Rav applies this verse to Zimri, Cozbi, and Pinchas.

זַרְזִיר מָתְנַיִם on a peshat level is an animal, a greyhound. However, literally, it means "energetic of loins." A perfect reference to Zimri. Why 424 times? This connects to the phrase זַרְזִיר מָתְנַיִם, for the numerical value of זַרְזִיר is 424. Thus 424 instances of energetic use of his loins. (One need not take this number literally, but one might consider it a way of stressing how long this went on, while at the same time connecting it further to the foreign verse.)

תָיִשׁ literally refers to a he-goat. Yet one may read it midrashically as tash, as in tash kocho, ihs strength is exhausted.

Yet, וּמֶלֶךְ, אַלְקוּם עִמּוֹ, God, the king, against Whom there is no standing up, was with Pinchas, and so he did not have to wait for Zimri to be exhausted before making his move.

Perhaps we might also incorporate the word אוֹ. That is, Pinchas could have killed him while he was yet energetic or when he was exhausted, yet he waited, not knowing that since Hashem was with him, he would have prevailed either way.

That is the application of the foreign verse. What about the local verse? Well, there is the tangential assumption that Pinchas was also allowed to kill Zimri while Zimri was actually engaged in the act - based on various halachic principles. Thus, in Sanhedrin 82a, we see Rabbi Yochanan say:
What is more, had Zimri forsaken his mistress and Phinehas slain him, Phinehas would have been executed on his account; and had Zimri turned upon Phinehas and slain him, he would not have been executed, since Phinehas was a pursuer [seeking to take his life].
But this is different that Pinchas waiting for Zimri to become exhausted in the sexual act.

In fact, this קבה/קבתה issue is likely at play. Rav reads not only the second instance as female anatomy, but the first instance as well. Thus:

וַיַּרְא, פִּינְחָס בֶּן-אֶלְעָזָר, בֶּן-אַהֲרֹן, הַכֹּהֵן; וַיָּקָם מִתּוֹךְ הָעֵדָה, וַיִּקַּח רֹמַח בְּיָדוֹ.

Pinchas saw them, and got up from within the congregation, taking a spear in hand.

וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה

And he went after the Israelite man {entered} her womb opening.

Not only taking הַקֻּבָּה as womb but taking after to mean temporal succession instead of spatial succession. (That is, he did this after -- timewise -- the Israelite mean entered her womb opening.)

Then

וַיִּדְקֹר אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם--אֵת אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל, וְאֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ

and only then did he slay them both.

Another midrash: Among the miracles that Rabbi Yochanan lists in the Pinchas incident, on Sanhedrin 82b:
[iii] he [Phinheas] succeeded [in driving his spear] exactly through the sexual organs of the man and woman.
this is of course associated with the fact that he pierced through her belly, or rather, female anatomy.

וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה, וַיִּדְקֹר אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם--אֵת אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל, וְאֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ

But, the derivation is actually even more specific:

וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה
And he waited (thus achar) until the Israelite had entered her womb opening.

וַיִּדְקֹר אֶת-שְׁנֵיהֶם
And he pierced through both of them, in one act. Or rather, he pierced through both of their sexual organs. שְׁנֵיהֶם may refer specifically to their organs rather to them in general.

אֵת אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל
That {sexual organ} of the Israelite man

וְאֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ
and that of the woman, into her womb.

Thus, the derasha certainly involved שְׁנֵיהֶם, and quite likely also incorporates a match between both instances of קבה.

One final interesting midrash, involving some of the same elements. From Sanhedrin 82a-b. How did Pinchas manage to gte into the tent with the spear in order to kill Zimri and Cozbi?
He removed its point and placed it in his undergarment, and went along leaning upon the stock [of the spear, into which the pointed blade is inserted], and as soon as he reached the tribe of Simeon, he exclaimed, 'Where do we find that the tribe of Levi is greater than that of Simeon? [i.e., I too wish to indulge]. Thereupon they said, 'Let him pass too. He enters to satisfy his lust. These abstainers have now declared the matter permissible.'
So many different elements enter this interesting midrash. The first is the allusion to Ehud, who slew Eglon the king of the Moabites with a sword (see sefer Shofetim 3:12). There, Ehud must resort to similar trickery, giving some other reason for entering alone to meet the king, and hiding his sword in his garment. He was left-handed, and they did not search that side of him.

טז וַיַּעַשׂ לוֹ אֵהוּד חֶרֶב, וְלָהּ שְׁנֵי פֵיוֹת--גֹּמֶד אָרְכָּהּ; וַיַּחְגֹּר אוֹתָהּ מִתַּחַת לְמַדָּיו, עַל יֶרֶךְ יְמִינוֹ. 16 And Ehud made him a sword which had two edges, of a cubit length; and he girded it under his raiment upon his right thigh.
and furthermore:

כא וַיִּשְׁלַח אֵהוּד, אֶת-יַד שְׂמֹאלוֹ, וַיִּקַּח אֶת-הַחֶרֶב, מֵעַל יֶרֶךְ יְמִינוֹ; וַיִּתְקָעֶהָ, בְּבִטְנוֹ. 21 And Ehud put forth his left hand, and took the sword from his right thigh, and thrust it into his belly.
כב וַיָּבֹא גַם-הַנִּצָּב אַחַר הַלַּהַב, וַיִּסְגֹּר הַחֵלֶב בְּעַד הַלַּהַב--כִּי לֹא שָׁלַף הַחֶרֶב, מִבִּטְנוֹ; וַיֵּצֵא, הַפַּרְשְׁדֹנָה. 22 And the haft also went in after the blade; and the fat closed upon the blade, for he drew not the sword out of his belly; and it came out behind.
Thus, we have the sword going into Eglon's belly, just as the spear entered Cozbi's belly. Add to this that both Eglon and Cozbi are Moabite royalty (see previous post about Cozbi being the daughter of Balak), and the parallels basically write a large portion of the midrash.

When about Pinchas claiming to want to enter for the purpose of sinning? Once again, a close reading of the local pasuk.

וַיָּקָם מִתּוֹךְ הָעֵדָה, וַיִּקַּח רֹמַח בְּיָדוֹ.
So, Pinchas took this spear in his hand, and concealed it as follows: "He removed its point and placed it in his undergarment, and went along leaning upon the stock [of the spear, into which the pointed blade is inserted]"
Thus, the actual blade was hidden in his undergarment, but the romach, the stock of the spear, he took in his hand, leaning upon it like a walking stick.

וַיָּבֹא אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה
we take אַחַר not in the sense of following after in time or place, but rather, after in intent. He went "after," in the way of, the Israelite man, to enter her womb, אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה. Or so he said. Thus:
and as soon as he reached the tribe of Simeon, he exclaimed, 'Where do we find that the tribe of Levi is greater than that of Simeon? [i.e., I too wish to indulge]. Thereupon they said, 'Let him pass too. He enters to satisfy his lust.
He enters - וַיָּבֹא, in the same way as Zimri - אַחַר אִישׁ-יִשְׂרָאֵל, in order to satisfy his lust - אֶל-הַקֻּבָּה.

Another possible (though unlikely) point in this midrash is that Pinchas places the point of the spear in his underclothing, and enters under the guise of desiring to satisfy his lust. The spear may well be a phallic symbol, and indeed, what does he do with it?

וַיִּדְקֹר... אֶת-הָאִשָּׁה אֶל-קֳבָתָהּ
he thrusts it into the woman's womb. Indeed, they take pains to compare him to Zimri. Except of course that he does not do what Zimri does, but instead directs his focus in a different direction.

This is what I meant in previous posts about midrashim arising out of midrashic analyses of the pesukim - such that it is somewhat more difficult to claim that Chazal did not intend this as anything but figurative.

blog roundup for parshat Pinchas

AlanLaz analyses a midrash which lists several who merited the reward of the entire generation, and lists the daughters of Tzelofchad among them. He suggests that this is because while the entire generation desired to return to Egypt at signs of trouble, Tzelofchad's daughters wished to inherit the land despite the difficulties it would entail. He then relates it to the current difficult situation in Israel.

As always, I like when people actually cite the midrash inside, so while he does not, I will provide it here. It is from Sifrei Zuta:

ותקרבנה בנות צלפחד וכו' הוא כל אדם כשר שעומד בתוך דור רשע זוכה ליטול שכר כולו. נח עמד בדור המבול זכה ליטול שכר כולו, אברהם עמד בדור הפלגה זכה ליטול שכר כולו, לוט עמד בדור סדום זכה ליטול שכר כולו, אל (=בנות צלפחד) עמדו בדור המדבר זכו ליטול שכר כולו.

Choshvei Shemo also relates parshat Pinchas to the current situation in Israel. He suggests that the way to succeed is to oppose immorality, and thus brings in the opposition to the WorldPride event in Jerusalem (though not in any violent way).

Similarly, Rabbi Pinchos Lipshutz draws inspiration from Pinchas in light of current events in Israel to encourage fidelity to Torah and halacha.

Purim Hero discusses how some pervert the lesson of parshat Pinchas to encourage violence, in light of the news story about the flyer encouraging use of firebombs against participants in the WorldPride event in Jerusalem. (Though I am not convinced that it was not a prankster or an agent provocateur who created these fliers -- there is precedent for both.) (Also relevant to this issue is my post from last year - Did Pinchas Act on His Own Initiative?)

Rafi G. at Torah Thoughts expands on a Rashi about Moshe appointing a successor, about great leaders taking care of the community up to the point of their own deaths, to ensure a smooth transition. In another post, he suggests that the lineage of Pinchas, traced to Aharon, is not to stop those of his generation from criticizing him, but rather is directed towards us -- so that we should know that "the intentions of Pinchas were honest and done with integrity."

Once again, I wish people would also cite the source before discussing it. It may well be a good explanation. However, in terms of intentions and integrity, I am not so sure. A citation from Sanhedrin 82. Ignoring the portion about the ministering angels:
The tribes now began abusing him: 'See ye this son of Puti [= Putiel] whose maternal grandfather fattened [pittem] cattle for idols, and who has now slain the prince of a tribe of Israel!' Therefore Scripture detailed his ancestry: Phinehas, the son of Eleazar, the son of Aaron the Priest.
It seems that the complaint is about ancestry. "Who is this schnook? Look at who he comes from. A nobody! And he has slain a prince of Israel." Thus, we are told the Pinchas was no schnook, but had princely yichus of his own.

By the way, I would assume that a large part of the midrashic spark of this is that this lineage of Pinchas begins God's command to Moshe, in pasuk 11, and juxtaposed, immediately following, is:
יד וְשֵׁם אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל הַמֻּכֶּה, אֲשֶׁר הֻכָּה אֶת-הַמִּדְיָנִית--זִמְרִי, בֶּן-סָלוּא: נְשִׂיא בֵית-אָב, לַשִּׁמְעֹנִי. 14 Now the name of the man of Israel that was slain, who was slain with the Midianitish woman, was Zimri, the son of Salu, a prince of a fathers' house among the Simeonites.
טו וְשֵׁם הָאִשָּׁה הַמֻּכָּה הַמִּדְיָנִית, כָּזְבִּי בַת-צוּר: רֹאשׁ אֻמּוֹת בֵּית-אָב בְּמִדְיָן, הוּא. {פ} 15 And the name of the Midianitish woman that was slain was Cozbi, the daughter of Zur; he was head of the people of a fathers' house in Midian.

And so the midrash read this as a response.

Relevant to a post of mine about the curiosity of only Menashe being listed as part of shevet Yosef in the list of the spies, ADDeRabbi discusses how the Torah traces the ancestry of the daughters of Tzelofchad back to Yosef, and how "the daughters of Tzelophchad ... re-asserted the Josephite relationship with the land."

Sedra Shorts has an analysis piece, showing how Yehoshua took on Moshe's role in several ways.

Reb Barry also has a takeoff on the Zimri-Pinchas thing and the leaflets offering a reward for killing a gay participant in the WorldPride event. I disagree with him in terms of analysis of the meaning of the Zimri event. Further, he repeats the famous claim:
Yes, the Torah forbids male homosexuality. Calls it a "toevah," an abomination. But before you jump to conclusions and think it might in some way be OK to kill Jews who do something abominable to God, remember that eating non-kosher food is also called a "toevah." Why don't these modern day Pinchas's run out to the nearest non-kosher restaurant and start killing people eating BLTs?
Actually, it uses the term sheketz. See Vayikra 11 and Vayikra 20.

Update: Actually, I stand corrected - there is one instance in which toeva substitutes as a synonym for sheketz. See the comments. There still are some obvious distinctions between the two - the most obvious being the difference between noun and verb, but also between the punishment explicitly related to each, among others)

Thursday, July 13, 2006

parshat Pinchas: Who Was Cozbi bat Tzur?

There is an interesting parse of Bemidbar 25:15, in identifying Cozbi Bat Tzur. That pasuk reads:
יד וְשֵׁם אִישׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל הַמֻּכֶּה, אֲשֶׁר הֻכָּה אֶת-הַמִּדְיָנִית--זִמְרִי, בֶּן-סָלוּא: נְשִׂיא בֵית-אָב, לַשִּׁמְעֹנִי. 14 Now the name of the man of Israel that was slain, who was slain with the Midianitish woman, was Zimri, the son of Salu, a prince of a fathers' house among the Simeonites.
טו וְשֵׁם הָאִשָּׁה הַמֻּכָּה הַמִּדְיָנִית, כָּזְבִּי בַת-צוּר: רֹאשׁ אֻמּוֹת בֵּית-אָב בְּמִדְיָן, הוּא. {פ} 15 And the name of the Midianitish woman that was slain was Cozbi, the daughter of Zur; he was head of the people of a fathers' house in Midian.
Targum Pseudo-Yonatan identifies her as Shevilanai daughter of Balak. The Shevilanai part is explained well in Sanhedrin 82b, which I eventually intend to cover in another post, but there, it is Shevilanai daughter of Tzur. Tg Yonatan changes Tzur to Balak, king of Moav, based in part on the following interesting reparse of the verse (there are other aspects, such as the fact that it is the daughters of the Moabites who commit harlotry, the aspect of Bilaam's counsel, etc. See this post where I discuss some of it):

רֹאשׁ - the head
אֻמּוֹת - revocalize as umat, thus uma de, the nation of
בֵּית-אָב - the house of the father, code for Moav
בְּמִדְיָן הוּא - who dwelled in Midian

Awesome!

parshat Pinchas - Brit Kehunat Olam. What Exactly Did Pinchas Get? Also, how could Pinchas Kill Zimri?

Towards the beginning of Pinchas, we read {Bemidbar 25:13}:
יג וְהָיְתָה לּוֹ וּלְזַרְעוֹ אַחֲרָיו, בְּרִית כְּהֻנַּת עוֹלָם--תַּחַת, אֲשֶׁר קִנֵּא לֵאלֹהָיו, וַיְכַפֵּר, עַל-בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל. 13 and it shall be unto him, and to his seed after him, the covenant of an everlasting priesthood; because he was jealous for his God, and made atonement for the children of Israel.'
This is somewhat strange, given that Pinchas is the son of Eleazar, the son of Aharon the Kohen. And all descendants of Aharon are also kohanim {priests}. If so, Pinchas should already be a kohen, so why is he being appointed one now?

The famous answer is given by Rashi, who in turn gets it from Zevachim 101b. Sure, kehuna is inherited, and so all sons born to Aharon and Eleazar will also be kohanim. But the appointment of Aharon and Eleazar was done after Pinchas' birth. All sons born after they are appointed will indeed be kohanim. But Pinchas, being born before this, is not born into the priesthood.

Thus, Pinchas eludes the kehuna under a grandfather clause, of sorts.

Wouldn't we expect the same to be true for the Levites. This too is an inherited positions, so anyone not numbered and appointed should not be a levite. Would this indeed be so? Well, this is sort of irrelevant, but perhaps not, given that if we look at the counting and appointing of the Levites in place of the firstborns in Bemidbar 3, we see that are counted not from the age of 20 and up, but rather from one month and on. (Perhaps because earlier that that is considered a safek that it might end up a nefel?) Yet, for those under one month -- and why specify, if there were none? -- did they become Leviim? Did their children inherit Leviiteness?

Anyhow, this is the somewhat midrashic answer to the problem of the introduction of berit kehunat olam.

Meanwhile, Ibn Ezra, Ralbag, and Shadal all claim that the peshat in the pasuk is different. Namely, that what is being given here is the High Priesthood, kehuna gedola. All future High Priests will be descendants of Pinchas.

Shadal writes:

לפי הפשט הכוונה כדעת ראב"ע ורלב"ג שהכהנים הגדולים יהיו מזרעו, ועיין רלב"ג

Indeed, the Sifrei mentions the various kohanim gedolim in the first and second Bet HaMikdash, who all were descendants of Pinchas.

Now, we shall not be like certain ursine bloggers who throw a hissy-fit every time they discover that, in elementary school, they were only exposed to the midrash-based Rashi and not to an alternate peshat. No. Instead, we will lean back in our chair and admire the two approaches to resolving the textual difficulty.

On a related note, there is an interesting question in Daat Zekenim miBaalei haTosafot: How could Pinchas kill Zimri? If he killed him in the tent, would he not become ritually impure?

One could easy dismiss the very premise of the question, of course. People were dying left and right in the plague, and the slaying of Zimri stopped it. Sometimes certain commandments and prohibitions are set aside for cases of emergency. If Pinchas saw someone killing another in a cemetery, could he intervene? Of course! Plus, consider my post from last year claiming, based on pesukim, that Pinchas' act was not that of a zealot, but rather the fulfillment of a direct command of Moshe, mentioned in a pasuk (see Did Pinchas Act On His Own Initiative?). Being a kohen should not have caused a problem.

Yet, Daat Zekeinim suggests, based on Rashi, that since Pinchas was not yet a kohen, he did not need to worry about becoming ritually impure.

(Pop quiz for those interested in the issue Midrashic literalism: Does Daat Zekeinim consider this Rashi to be literal or allegorical?)

Daat Zekeinim gives an alternative suggestion: A goses, one at death's door, does not render one ritually impure. So Zimri was a goses until Pinchas left the tent.

Indeed, Targum Pseudo-Yonatan lists Zimri not dying as the eleventh of many miracles that happened in the Pinchas incident. (The gemara in Sanhedrin daf 82 only lists 6, and thus is not among them.)

Tuesday, July 11, 2006

Is Rabbi Yehuda HaNasi's Passing Precedent For Denial of the Lubavitcher Rebbe's Death?

In one of the few posts on parshablog that sparked reader comment, a posting about an article in the Five Towns Jewish Times that seems to suggest that the Lubavitcher Rebbe was not dead, but just pining for the fjords, an anonymous commenter commented:
why is all hell breaking loose when you see talmidim of a rebbe, that can not come to terms with the demise of their teacher, dosen't chazal tell us that by rabenu hakodesh the talmidim said whoever will proclaim that rebbe died will be stabbed with a sword look in the yevetz on the spot.
I posted what I think is a good response in the comments there, which I will reproduce here as a post. This is a good example of the tendency to spout random statements of "Chazal" without carefully considering them inside and seeing what they actually say. In this instance, there seems to be a complete misunderstanding and misinterpretation of the gemara and the Ya'betz, which leads to justification of the false belief that it is acceptable to believe that the Rebbe is not dead. Here is my response:
cite this "Chazal" inside, please, rather than making fuzzy reference to it and drawing broad conclusions on its basis.

That is, you should not say "Chazal," but rather, "The gemara in Ketubot 104a states," and then give an exact quote. Then give an exact quotation of the Yabetz. Then explain why you think these two cases are parallel. Simply stating "Chazal" and giving an inaccurate summary of the gemara might serve to persuade people who are not familiar with the gemara, but does a disservice to arriving at truth.

first, I'll respond broadly, and then specifically to your point.

the major difference is that this is many years after, and in a situation in which this belief is tangled up in a belief that the Rebbe is mashiach. and so, the belief that the Rebbe is alive props up false messianism. (see how exactly the same thing occurred in Christianity and Sabbateanism.) furthermore, there is a difference between private emotional denial and someone who teaches the public by, for example, writing many articles, who will thus spread the false belief.

that is my broad response. my specific response to the sources will follow.


Then:
and here is my response, rooted in the source you mentioned.

The gemara in Ketubot 104a (which can be read here) states:

ההוא יומא דנח נפשיה דרבי גזרו רבנן תעניתא ובעו רחמי ואמרי כל מאן דאמר נח נפשיה דר' ידקר בחרב סליקא אמתיה דרבי לאיגרא אמרה עליוני' מבקשין את רבי והתחתוני' מבקשין את רבי יהי רצון שיכופו תחתונים את העליונים כיון דחזאי כמה זימני דעייל לבית הכסא וחלץ תפילין ומנח להו וקמצטער אמרה יהי רצון שיכופו עליונים את התחתונים ולא הוו שתקי רבנן מלמיבעי רחמי שקלה כוזא שדייא מאיגרא [לארעא] אישתיקו מרחמי ונח נפשיה דרבי אמרו ליה רבנן לבר קפרא זיל עיין אזל אשכחיה דנח נפשיה קרעיה ללבושיה ואהדריה לקרעיה לאחוריה פתח ואמר אראלים ומצוקים אחזו בארון הקדש נצחו אראלים את המצוקים ונשבה ארון הקדש אמרו ליה נח נפשיה אמר להו אתון קאמריתו ואנא לא קאמינא

That is, they stated this not when Rabbi Yehuda haNasi was already dead, but rather when he was *sick* and on the verge of death.
When bar Kappara saw that Rabbi Yehuda haNasi died, rather than tell them directly, such that the pain would cause them to say that bar Kappara was worthy of being pierced with a sword, he spoke in allegory. They immediately surmised that he meant that Rabbi Yehuda haNasi had died and they exclaimed, "he has died." He then told them, "You have said it and not me."

That is, bar Kappara, immediately upon seeing Rabbi Yehuda haNasi had died, tore kriya and accepted that his Rebbe had died. When bar Kappara told the Rabbanan in careful terms, they also immediately surmised that Rabbi Yehuda haNasi had died.

*After* hearing that he had died, they did NOT continue to deny that he had died.

Now it is your turn. Argue based on sources quoted directly.


Upon no response (prbably because it was a hit and run posting):
since you haven't responded yet, let me help you out by giving the text of the Ya'betz you mentioned. what do you think it means, and what relevance does it have to the case at hand?
(i'll wait a little bit, and then provide and explanation about how it is irrelevant to the case at hand, and perhaps how you are misreading it in a meshichist manner -- and why this is a misreading)

ידקר בחרב:
שמא מתוך שגזרו כך לא היה יכול למות, מאחר שאין אדם רשאי להודיע דבר מיתתו, א"כ כשימות ואין רואה ומודיע להתעסק בקבורתו, יהא מוטל בבזיון, לפיכך מתוך כך לא היה יכול להפטר מן העולם, ולא קרב אליו אדם לראותו עד שנתנו רשות לבר קפרא


Then:
to translate:
"[he who informs us that Rabbi Yehuda haNasi has died] shall be pierced with a sword:
Perhaps by decreeing this he was not able to die. For once no man is permitted to make known the matter of his death, when he dies and no one sees and makes it known to take care of his burial, he would remain in a state of disgrace. Therefore, because of this, he was unable to pass from the world. And no one came close to him to see him until they game permission to Bar Kappara."

Now, what does what the Ya'betz say have anything whatsoever to do with students in denial of their teacher's passing? If anything, his words take any aspect of an emotional state of denial from the story. So, in sum, this oblique reference to "Chazal" and Ya'betz is simply incorrect.

UNLESS...

Unless you did not intend a state of denial at all in reference to the Ya'betz. Unless you are a meshichist, and think that the first ferw words of his commentary, cited out of context - שמא מתוך שגזרו כך לא היה יכול למות - is relevant to the Lubavitcher Rebbe, zt"l. That similarly, since some of the Rebbe's students are in a similar state of denial, the Rebbe actually is NOT dead and is in fact alive.

If so, I can understand why you would only make oblique reference rather than spelling it out.

And just to make clear to all, this is not a sensible explanation of the Ya'betz's commentary.

The Ya'betz was NOT saying that there is a mystical state of affairs that if students of a rebbe deny his death, he is still alive. Rather, quite clearly, the Ya'betz is saying that when Rabbi Yehuda haNasi was still alive, a decree like this would be efficacious to keep him alive, since Hashem would not want Rabbi Yehuda haNasi's body to rod and remain in a disgraceful state. In comparison, the students of the Lubavitcher Rebbe *have* been informed of his passing, and the Lubavitcher Rebbe was in fact buried by the community with great honor. And the Rebbe, tz"l, has been dead already for many years. The lesson simply does not translate.

Note, BTW, that I would take issue even with the Ya'betz's explanation of the gemara. After all, the gemara states ונח נפשיה דרבי as a result of the maidservant's actions, BEFORE they gave permission to Bar Kappara to check on Rabbi Yehuda haNasi's state.

Sunday, July 09, 2006

parshat Balak: Why the Etnachta in the Last Pasuk?

On erev Shabbat, I saw this devar Torah, and could not help but think of a gemara in Berachot 55a. It begins:
The following was apparently told over in a dream to his son by R' Shraga Feivel of Smargan...
and the gemara in Berachot states:
Yirmiyahu 23:28:
כח הַנָּבִיא אֲשֶׁר-אִתּוֹ חֲלוֹם, יְסַפֵּר חֲלוֹם, וַאֲשֶׁר דְּבָרִי אִתּוֹ, יְדַבֵּר דְּבָרִי אֱמֶת: מַה-לַתֶּבֶן אֶת-הַבָּר, נְאֻם-ה. 28 The prophet that hath a dream, let him tell a dream; and he that hath My word; let him speak My word faithfully. What hath the straw to do with the wheat? saith the LORD.
What is the connection of straw and wheat with a dream? Rather, Rabbi Yochanan cited Rabbi Shimon bar Yochai: Just as it is impossible to have wheat without straw, so is it impossible to have a dream without nonsense.
That is, included in a dream, together with matters of substance, will be nonsense. In this instance, it is easy to find the chaff but less easy to find the wheat.

The dvar continues with a question: Why is there an etnachta in the middle of the last pasuk in parshat Balak, while there is no etnachta in the middle of a very similar statement in parshat Korach?

The pasuk at the end of Balak is Bemidbar 25:9:

ט וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה--אַרְבָּעָה וְעֶשְׂרִים, אָלֶף. {פ} 9 And those that died by the plague were twenty and four thousand. {P}
with an etnachta, a disjunctive accent, on the word בַּמַּגֵּפָה. Yet, in parshat Korach, in Bemidbar 17:15:
יד וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה, אַרְבָּעָה עָשָׂר אֶלֶף, וּשְׁבַע מֵאוֹת--מִלְּבַד הַמֵּתִים, עַל-דְּבַר-קֹרַח. 14 Now they that died by the plague were fourteen thousand and seven hundred, besides them that died about the matter of Korah.
where there is no etnachta on the word בַּמַּגֵּפָה; rather, it is on the word מֵאוֹת, and thus, the entire pasuk up to that point has no conceptual division. Why the difference in our parsha?

There are several reasons I consider this question to be chaff.

The first is that the rules of trup are such that every pasuk is divided in two. This major dichotomy is most often marked by an etnachta, though on occasion it can be marked by a tipcha or zakef, two other disjunctive accents, when the point of division is extremely close to the end of the verse.

Therefore, the proposition that a pasuk should not have a major dichotomy, marked by etnachta, is not one that makes sense in the context of the science of trup. Of course there must be an etnachta in the last pasuk of Balak.

Why, then, is there no etnachta in the similar phrase in parshat Korach? Simply put, there was a better location to place it. There is an etnachta in the pasuk. That pasuk, again, is:

וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה, אַרְבָּעָה עָשָׂר אֶלֶף, וּשְׁבַע מֵאוֹת--מִלְּבַד הַמֵּתִים, עַל-דְּבַר-קֹרַח

and the etnachta is on the word מֵאוֹת.

Why is this placement different for this pasuk? Well, the major dichotomy in the pasuk is always a logical dichotomy (while subsequent subdivisions are most often syntactic). In this pasuk in Korach, the best logical division one can find is on the word מֵאוֹת, such that we divide between those who died in the plague from those who died in the matter of Korach. In the pasuk at the end of Balak, there is no such stark logical division, and so the next best logical division is chosen - the statement that people died, from the actual number of people who died.

Do not think that just because the same symbol for dusjunctive accent is used in both instances, the semantic strength of the division is the same. The specific accent chosen does not bear an absolute disjunctive value, but rather bears a value relative to the clause it subdivides. (And on this and other matters in the posts, see Wickes' book, "Two Treatises on the Accentuation of the Old Testament.")

Indeed, it is also not the case that the phrase in parshat Korach is left undivided. So long as there are three words in a phrase, trup engages in a continuous dichotomy, dividing into smaller and smaller chunks.

Because there is another general rule that we cannot have two etnachtas in a single pasuk, this division is not carried out with an etnachta, but rather another taam which functions relative to the etnachta at the end of the clause. That is, in

וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה, אַרְבָּעָה עָשָׂר אֶלֶף, וּשְׁבַע מֵאוֹת--מִלְּבַד הַמֵּתִים, עַל-דְּבַר-קֹרַח

it is true that the etnachta is on the word מֵאוֹת, but then the statement

וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה, אַרְבָּעָה עָשָׂר אֶלֶף, וּשְׁבַע מֵאוֹת

is further subdivided into two parts with a zakef on the word בַּמַּגֵּפָה. A zakef is chosen since it is the trup relative to an etnachta at the end of a phrase, when the position of subdivision is this many words from the end of the phrase.

The end result of this is that both phrases -- both the one in Korach and the one in Balak -- are divided equally, with the appropriate relative disjunctive accent on the word בַּמַּגֵּפָה.

But instead of giving this correct answer, dream R' Shraga Feivel gives an answer that "in order to lessen the blow of this plague, HaShem made it so that included in the 24,000 would be those who had reached their time to die anyway." Thus, the etnachta in the middle of the pasuk, such that we have the phrase by itself:

וַיִּהְיוּ, הַמֵּתִים בַּמַּגֵּפָה

And it was, the meitim {those who were destined to die anyway} were in the plague.

The Weekly Shtikle adds an interesting parallel case of a midrash cited by Rashi about ki yipol haNofel mimenu.

And this all might stand nicely as derash, since it is close reading of text and granting omnisignificance to a specific phrase. And the question is a good one, because it allows us to focus on some features and behaviour of trup.

Why am I noting this and picking on this devar? There are several reasons. First, the attempt to prop up the dvar Torah as coming from R Shraga Feivel.

Second, that it came in a dream, and thus perhaps from the Yeshiva shel Maalah.

Third, in general I see rather silly divrei Torah, in which a question is asked which demonstrates lack of understanding of the sources, and a solution is proposed which takes it even further from the sources. And people are trained on this fare, and then cannot distinguish the good from the bad.

Or perhaps I'm just ornery.

Friday, July 07, 2006

blog roundup for parshat Balak

Category: Homiletics
Rafi G. at Torah Thoughts discusses the theme of stubbornness in the parsha in pesukim and Rashi.

Category: Analysis
Sedra Shorts (Parshablog) suggests that Balak's fear was that he would never get back the land that they had captured from Sichon and Og which had formerly been Moabite territory. I see a slight difficulty in this focus on Israel's past actions in trying to mesh this with Moav's next words to Midian.

Rafi G. at Torah Thoughts takes note that Bilaam did not react in surprise when his donkey began to talk, and suggests that this is part and parcel of being a prophet - one comes to expect unusual things. If I recall correctly, commentators have made a similar point about Avraham's household, in terms of Hagar and/or in terms of Lot.

Category: Misc.

Rabbi Lazer Brody discusses a pasuk in Bilaam's curse => blessing,
"It is a nation that will dwell in solitude and won't be considered among the nations" (Bamidbar 23:9).
in the context of assimilation, a separate spiritual plane for Israel, and economic reliance upon Hashem directly.

Shlomi P has a roaming summary of events and threats to the Israelites in the past few parshas, up to Balak, concluding with Jewish survival as dependent on "connecting to the eternality of Torah."

Really related to parshat Chukat and the dvars posted in the "straightforward Dvar" category of the blog roundup for that parsha (but I didn't see it until after posting), Choshevei Shemo posts on the relationship between Gilad Shalit , the parsha, the gemaras learned in the Daf Yomi cycle during the 9th of Tammuz, and the Tamid offering.

The Chazon Ish's Glasses

Last week in shul, I was reading through Ateres Hashavua, a parsha sheet from the high school I went to (Ateres Yaakov), and right at the end, they printed the following inspirational story:
Before the Chazon Ish zt’l moved to Eretz Yisroel, he lived in Vilna, where Rav Chaim Ozer Grodzenski zt’l was the Rav and Dayan. When the Chazon Ish first moved into Vilna, Rav Chaim Ozer invited him to daven in his Shul, where the Chazon Ish received an aliyah. Rav Chaim Ozer noticed that before the Chazon Ish began to make the brachos on the Torah, he removed his glasses. Curious, Rav Chaim Ozer asked the Chazon Ish why he had removed his glasses. “Don’t you need them to see?” The Chazon Ish simply answered, “Yes, I do,” but did not explain why he had removed his glasses. It was only later that someone revealed that the Chazon Ish loved the Torah so much that he could not bear to have any physical barrier between himself and the Torah!

The next week, the Chazon Ish received an aliyah once again. Rav Chaim Ozer noticed that before the Chazon Ish began to make the brachos on the Torah, he removed all of his clothing. Curious, Rav Chaim Ozer asked the Chazon Ish why he had removed his all of his clothing. “Won’t you be cold?” The Chazon Ish simply answered, “Yes, I will,” but did not explain why he had removed his all of his clothing. It was only later that someone revealed that the Chazon Ish loved the Torah so much that he could not bear to have any physical barrier between himself and the Torah!
All right, so the second paragraph is my addition. But at least the punch line makes more sense!

Note that it is not the Chazon Ish that revealed the "reason," nor does it account why specifically glasses, more than anything else he was wearing, were a physical barrier. Nor does it strike me as a particularly plausible explanation for the Chazon Ish's actions - begause of his great love for Torah, he removed the physical barrier, even though it would prevent him from seeing what the baal koreh was reading!

My father suggested that perhaps the Chazon Ish's nose was feeling pinched by his glasses. My father-in-law suggested that perhaps his perscription was such that he needed to remove his glasses in order to read.

My intuition is that there was an halachic, rather than emotional, cause to the Chazon Ish's actions. In Brachot 25b (page 16b-17a in the Rif, on the Rif blog) we encounter the following:
Rava said: excrement through a glass, it is permitted to read Shema opposite it. erva through a glass, it is forbidden to read Shema opposite it.
What is the reason? There {by excrement}, Dvarim 23:15:

טו כִּי ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִתְהַלֵּךְ בְּקֶרֶב מַחֲנֶךָ, לְהַצִּילְךָ וְלָתֵת אֹיְבֶיךָ לְפָנֶיךָ, וְהָיָה מַחֲנֶיךָ, קָדוֹשׁ: וְלֹא-יִרְאֶה בְךָ עֶרְוַת דָּבָר, וְשָׁב מֵאַחֲרֶיךָ. {ס 15 For the LORD thy God walketh in the midst of thy camp, to deliver thee, and to give up thine enemies before thee; therefore shall thy camp be holy; that He see no unseemly thing in thee, and turn away from thee. {S}
and there is {a separation}. And here {via erva}, it is written (Dvarim 23:15)

טו כִּי ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִתְהַלֵּךְ בְּקֶרֶב מַחֲנֶךָ, לְהַצִּילְךָ וְלָתֵת אֹיְבֶיךָ לְפָנֶיךָ, וְהָיָה מַחֲנֶיךָ, קָדוֹשׁ: וְלֹא-יִרְאֶה בְךָ עֶרְוַת דָּבָר, וְשָׁב מֵאַחֲרֶיךָ. {ס 15 For the LORD thy God walketh in the midst of thy camp, to deliver thee, and to give up thine enemies before thee; therefore shall thy camp be holy; that He see no unseemly thing in thee, and turn away from thee. {S}
and behold he {the one saying Shema} sees!
Thus, there are times that glass functions as a partition in terms of the laws of reading Shema. Perhaps the Chazon Ish felt that his glasses would be considered an halachic separation from actually seeing the Torah during his aliyah. Why not tell this to Rav Chaim Ozer? Perhaps he considered this a chumra he accepted upon himself as a middat chassidut, but did not want this to become normative law. (Or perhaps he did not want to go into extended halachic discussions bein gavra legavra, or so as not to hold up the tzibbur, etc.)

Indeed, such an explanation could perhaps be found in the words of whoever revealed the reason after the fact.
"It was only later that someone revealed that the Chazon Ish loved the Torah so much that he could not bear to have any physical barrier between himself and the Torah!"
Perhaps at the root of this is that "the Chazon Ish loved the Torah so much that he could not bear did not wish to have any physical barrier between himself and the Torah."

Thursday, July 06, 2006

late parshat Shelach: Why Is the Mateh Yosef Missing?

There is an oddity in the list of spies Moshe sent to spy out the lad in Bemidbar 13:

ג וַיִּשְׁלַח אֹתָם מֹשֶׁה מִמִּדְבַּר פָּארָן, עַל-פִּי יְהוָה: כֻּלָּם אֲנָשִׁים, רָאשֵׁי בְנֵי-יִשְׂרָאֵל הֵמָּה. 3 And Moses sent them from the wilderness of Paran according to the commandment of the LORD; all of them men who were heads of the children of Israel.
ד וְאֵלֶּה, שְׁמוֹתָם: לְמַטֵּה רְאוּבֵן, שַׁמּוּעַ בֶּן-זַכּוּר. 4 And these were their names: of the tribe of Reuben, Shammua the son of Zaccur.
ה לְמַטֵּה שִׁמְעוֹן, שָׁפָט בֶּן-חוֹרִי. 5 Of the tribe of Simeon, Shaphat the son of Hori.
ו לְמַטֵּה יְהוּדָה, כָּלֵב בֶּן-יְפֻנֶּה. 6 Of the tribe of Judah, Caleb the son of Jephunneh.
ז לְמַטֵּה יִשָּׂשכָר, יִגְאָל בֶּן-יוֹסֵף. 7 Of the tribe of Issachar, Igal the son of Joseph.
ח לְמַטֵּה אֶפְרָיִם, הוֹשֵׁעַ בִּן-נוּן. 8 Of the tribe of Ephraim, Hoshea the son of Nun.
ט לְמַטֵּה בִנְיָמִן, פַּלְטִי בֶּן-רָפוּא. 9 Of the tribe of Benjamin, Palti the son of Raphu.
י לְמַטֵּה זְבוּלֻן, גַּדִּיאֵל בֶּן-סוֹדִי. 10 Of the tribe of Zebulun, Gaddiel the son of Sodi.
יא לְמַטֵּה יוֹסֵף, לְמַטֵּה מְנַשֶּׁה--גַּדִּי, בֶּן-סוּסִי. 11 Of the tribe of Joseph, namely, of the tribe of Manasseh, Gaddi the son of Susi.
יב לְמַטֵּה דָן, עַמִּיאֵל בֶּן-גְּמַלִּי. 12 Of the tribe of Dan, Ammiel the son of Gemalli.
יג לְמַטֵּה אָשֵׁר, סְתוּר בֶּן-מִיכָאֵל. 13 Of the tribe of Asher, Sethur the son of Michael.
יד לְמַטֵּה נַפְתָּלִי, נַחְבִּי בֶּן-וָפְסִי. 14 Of the tribe of Naphtali, Nahbi the son of Vophsi.
טו לְמַטֵּה גָד, גְּאוּאֵל בֶּן-מָכִי. 15 Of the tribe of Gad, Geuel the son of Machi.
טז אֵלֶּה שְׁמוֹת הָאֲנָשִׁים, אֲשֶׁר-שָׁלַח מֹשֶׁה לָתוּר אֶת-הָאָרֶץ; וַיִּקְרָא מֹשֶׁה לְהוֹשֵׁעַ בִּן-נוּן, יְהוֹשֻׁעַ. 16 These are the names of the men that Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Hoshea the son of Nun Joshua.
Compare pasuk 8 with pasuk 11. In pasuk 8:

ח לְמַטֵּה אֶפְרָיִם, הוֹשֵׁעַ בִּן-נוּן. 8 Of the tribe of Ephraim, Hoshea the son of Nun.
there is no mention made of the tribe of Yosef, whereas in pasuk 11:

יא לְמַטֵּה יוֹסֵף, לְמַטֵּה מְנַשֶּׁה--גַּדִּי, בֶּן-סוּסִי. 11 Of the tribe of Joseph, namely, of the tribe of Manasseh, Gaddi the son of Susi.
The JPS translation above is actually already attempting to solve this irregularity. The word "namely" does not correspond to any specific word in the Hebrew original.

Thus, the Hebrew of pasuk 11 could be rendered:
Of the tribe of Yosef, of the tribe of Menashe, Gaddi ben Sussi.

That is, that the tribe of Menashe was a part of the greater tribe of Yosef. The problem with this is: what is your definition of tribe -- can you have two "tribes" within a "tribe" -- and secondly, it does not say "Of the tribe of Yosef" by Ephraim.

"Namely" seems a good explanation here. That is, the tribe of Yosef is the tribe of Menashe, who is the firstborn. Since Yosef gets a double-portion, Ephraim gets to be a tribe of its own.

Here is one interesting example, which might be an exception. In Bemidbar 34:23-24:

יז אֵלֶּה שְׁמוֹת הָאֲנָשִׁים, אֲשֶׁר-יִנְחֲלוּ לָכֶם אֶת-הָאָרֶץ: אֶלְעָזָר, הַכֹּהֵן, וִיהוֹשֻׁעַ, בִּן-נוּן. יח וְנָשִׂיא אֶחָד נָשִׂיא אֶחָד, מִמַּטֶּה--תִּקְחוּ, לִנְחֹל אֶת-הָאָרֶץ. יט וְאֵלֶּה, שְׁמוֹת הָאֲנָשִׁים: לְמַטֵּה יְהוּדָה, כָּלֵב בֶּן-יְפֻנֶּה. כ וּלְמַטֵּה בְּנֵי שִׁמְעוֹן, שְׁמוּאֵל בֶּן-עַמִּיהוּד. כא לְמַטֵּה בִנְיָמִן, אֱלִידָד בֶּן-כִּסְלוֹן. כב וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-דָן, נָשִׂיא--בֻּקִּי, בֶּן-יָגְלִי. כג לִבְנֵי יוֹסֵף, לְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-מְנַשֶּׁה נָשִׂיא--חַנִּיאֵל, בֶּן-אֵפֹד. כד וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-אֶפְרַיִם, נָשִׂיא--קְמוּאֵל, בֶּן-שִׁפְטָן. כה וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-זְבוּלֻן, נָשִׂיא--אֱלִיצָפָן, בֶּן-פַּרְנָךְ. כו וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-יִשָּׂשכָר, נָשִׂיא--פַּלְטִיאֵל, בֶּן-עַזָּן. כז וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-אָשֵׁר, נָשִׂיא--אֲחִיהוּד, בֶּן-שְׁלֹמִי. כח וּלְמַטֵּה בְנֵי-נַפְתָּלִי, נָשִׂיא--פְּדַהְאֵל, בֶּן-עַמִּיהוּד.

Thus, among the descendants of Yosef, their is the tribe of Menashe. Ephraim is in a pasuk by himself. However, one might say that livnei yosef is distributive in this instance - something easy to say because of the vav hachibbur (which, though, occurs by every other tribe as well save the first) and because Ephraim immediately follows Menashe.

When dividing the land in sefer Yehoshua, we find {Yehoshua 16}:

א וַיֵּצֵא הַגּוֹרָל לִבְנֵי יוֹסֵף, מִיַּרְדֵּן יְרִיחוֹ, לְמֵי יְרִיחוֹ, מִזְרָחָה; הַמִּדְבָּר, עֹלֶה מִירִיחוֹ בָּהָר--בֵּית-אֵל. ב וְיָצָא מִבֵּית-אֵל, לוּזָה; וְעָבַר אֶל-גְּבוּל הָאַרְכִּי, עֲטָרוֹת. ג וְיָרַד-יָמָּה אֶל-גְּבוּל הַיַּפְלֵטִי, עַד גְּבוּל בֵּית-חוֹרֹן תַּחְתּוֹן--וְעַד-גָּזֶר; וְהָיוּ תֹצְאֹתָו, יָמָּה. ד וַיִּנְחֲלוּ בְנֵי-יוֹסֵף, מְנַשֶּׁה וְאֶפְרָיִם. ה וַיְהִי גְּבוּל בְּנֵי-אֶפְרַיִם, לְמִשְׁפְּחֹתָם...

so both are considered benei Yosef in terms of the goral.

Another interesting but, I think, unlikely, possibility occurred to me: By Ephraim, mention of the tribe of Yosef is not necessary, because the previous two words serve double-duty:
ז לְמַטֵּה יִשָּׂשכָר, יִגְאָל בֶּן-יוֹסֵף. 7 Of the tribe of Issachar, Igal the son of Joseph.
ח לְמַטֵּה אֶפְרָיִם, הוֹשֵׁעַ בִּן-נוּן. 8 Of the tribe of Ephraim, Hoshea the son of Nun.

Must Read Noah's Rainbow Sighted Over Idaho; Correct Peshat in the Pesukim in Parshat Noach

Forget this business of Noah's ark being "discovered" in Iran. I have got even more exciting news: the correct identification of Noah's arc.

The keshet in parashat Noach is not a typical rainbow, but an extremely rare sort of rainbow.

I saw the following on Snopes the other day, labelled as "True." Forgive the ALL-CAPS. I can't be bothered to retype it. The following text was going around:
THIS IS A FIRE RAINBOW — THE RAREST OF ALL NATURALLY OCCURING ATMOSPHERIC PHENOMENA.

THE PICTURE WAS CAPTURED ON THE IDAHO/WASHINGTON BORDER. THE EVENT LASTED ABOUT 1 HOUR.

CLOUDS HAVE TO BE CIRRUS, AT LEAST 20K FEET IN THE AIR, WITH JUST THE RIGHT AMOUNT OF ICE CRYSTALS AND THE SUN HAS TO HIT THE CLOUDS AT PRCEISELY 58 DEGREES.




Snopes' comment on it:
This is a real photograph of an atmospheric phenomenon known as a circumhorizon(tal) arc, the example shown above was captured on camera as it hung for about an hour across a several-hundred square mile area of sky above northern Idaho (near the Washington border) on 3 June 2006.

In general, a circumhorizontal arc (or "fire rainbow") appears when the sun is high in the sky (i.e., higher than 58° above the horizon), and its light passes through diaphanous, high-altitude cirrus clouds made up of hexagonal plate crystals. Sunlight entering the crystals' vertical side faces and leaving through their bottom faces is refracted (as through a prism) and separated into an array of visible colors. When the plate crystals in cirrus clouds are aligned optimally (i.e., with their faces parallel to the ground), the resulting display is a brilliant spectrum of colors reminiscent of a rainbow.
Thus, this is a real, but extremely rare phenomenon. This rainbow is beautiful. It looks like it is made of fire because it is within cirrus clouds. It looks like a celestial rainbow, from God Himself. (Thus, in the pasuk, Hashem refers to it as kashti, My Bow.)

Indeed, there is a dispute between Ramban and others (discussed in DovBear's post from 2005) whether there were rainbows before the mabul. The others maintain that it did not exist before the Flood, for God sets it as a sign with a specific import, and perhaps the simplest reading of the verse is that this is a new phenomenon. The Ramban, while admitting that this would seem to be the most straightforward meaning of the pesukim, disputes this. Based on Greek science, he states that a rainbow is a naturally occuring phenomenon, and of course there would be plenty of naturally occurring rainbows before this. He darshens the past tense of the word natati (as well as the word kashti) as evidence that it was pre-existing, and so God was appointing it with a new message and meaning. See Ramban inside.

But with this celestial fire-rainbow, we need not resort to the "farfetchedness" of the Ramban. Since these are so rare, and very specific conditions need to be met, it is quite possible that (since Adam) until this point a fire-rainbow had not been seen by human eyes, or perhaps could even not have occurred at all. (I am taking the text on a literal level here, so even if you don't accept a literal account, within the framework of the narrative.)

Indeed, we find evidence in the pesukim themselves that this is our rainbow, and we may learn an incredible new peshat in the pesukim in the process. Look at Bereishit 9:

יב וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, זֹאת אוֹת-הַבְּרִית אֲשֶׁר-אֲנִי נֹתֵן בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם, וּבֵין כָּל-נֶפֶשׁ חַיָּה, אֲשֶׁר אִתְּכֶם--לְדֹרֹת, עוֹלָם. 12 And God said: 'This is the token of the covenant which I make between Me and you and every living creature that is with you, for perpetual generations:
יג אֶת-קַשְׁתִּי, נָתַתִּי בֶּעָנָן; וְהָיְתָה לְאוֹת בְּרִית, בֵּינִי וּבֵין הָאָרֶץ. 13 I have set My bow in the cloud, and it shall be for a token of a covenant between Me and the earth.
יד וְהָיָה, בְּעַנְנִי עָנָן עַל-הָאָרֶץ, וְנִרְאֲתָה הַקֶּשֶׁת, בֶּעָנָן. 14 And it shall come to pass, when I bring clouds over the earth, and the bow is seen in the cloud,
טו וְזָכַרְתִּי אֶת-בְּרִיתִי, אֲשֶׁר בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם, וּבֵין כָּל-נֶפֶשׁ חַיָּה, בְּכָל-בָּשָׂר; וְלֹא-יִהְיֶה עוֹד הַמַּיִם לְמַבּוּל, לְשַׁחֵת כָּל-בָּשָׂר. 15 that I will remember My covenant, which is between Me and you and every living creature of all flesh; and the waters shall no more become a flood to destroy all flesh.
טז וְהָיְתָה הַקֶּשֶׁת, בֶּעָנָן; וּרְאִיתִיהָ, לִזְכֹּר בְּרִית עוֹלָם, בֵּין אֱלֹהִים, וּבֵין כָּל-נֶפֶשׁ חַיָּה בְּכָל-בָּשָׂר אֲשֶׁר עַל-הָאָרֶץ. 16 And the bow shall be in the cloud; and I will look upon it, that I may remember the everlasting covenant between God and every living creature of all flesh that is upon the earth.'
יז וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, אֶל-נֹחַ: זֹאת אוֹת-הַבְּרִית, אֲשֶׁר הֲקִמֹתִי, בֵּינִי, וּבֵין כָּל-בָּשָׂר אֲשֶׁר עַל-הָאָרֶץ. {פ} 17 And God said unto Noah: 'This is the token of the covenant which I have established between Me and all flesh that is upon the earth.'
The pesukim repeat over and over: "and the bow shall be in the cloud." I would posit that the rainbow in the cloud means that the rainbow is in the cloud.

It shall come to pass, states verse 14, when I shall bring (cirrus) clouds over the earth, and the rainbow is seen in the cloud.

Not just any rainbow, but this specific, extremely rare meteorological phenomenon.

(Note: Sorry for that error in Jrants that made this post look inordinately large. I was trying to make it a bit bolder and misHTML-ized it, such that it came up much larger than anticipated. Attempts to fix just resulted in reposts, so I gave up.)

Wednesday, July 05, 2006

blog roundup for parshat Chukat

This is not a comprehensive list of all blogposts on the parsha, but just a repreesntative sample. If you have a posting on the parsha you would like included in next roundup, drop me a note:

Category: Philology

Balashon analyzes the word שרפ from a very Hirschian perspective.

Category: Straightforward Dvar

Nafka Mina offers a plausible allegorical interpretation of the famous midrash involving the 10 cubit Moshe taking on the much larger Og.

Aussie Dave at Israellycool reads parallels to the parsha in current Israeli events.

Bluke at The Jewish Worker makes a related point in this post (point 4).

Category: Homiletics

Rafi G. at Torah Thoughts discusses the implication of a midrash cited by Rashi about what the Israelites would have derived from Moshe speaking to the rock. And what they would derive from his hitting the rock. And thus why Moshe was punished as he was. I find the first two points more plausible than the last.

A wonderful interpretation of the incident of Moshe hitting the rock by Rabbi Gurkow at Inner Stream. In fact, I will excerpt some of it:
It was Moshe’s nature to lead by words, to entice, to cajole, to encourage and even to rebuke but never to hit.

To hit is to resort to violence out of sheer desperation. To hit is to allow your anger to get the better of you. To hit is to be destructive instead of constructive. To hit is to submit to the animal within and allow it to dominate. As humans and as Jews we are capable of more.

Remember: one destructive deed can destroy a hundred constructive words but one carrot accomplishes more than ten sticks.

Tuesday, July 04, 2006

Korach Minyan this past Shabbos

This past week, we held a minyan which in part tried to resolve one of the problematic inequalities in halacha (Jewish law) -- the inferiority of leviim and yisraelim as opposed to kohanim. In a regular minyan, a levi or yisrael is not called up for the first aliya where there is a kohen present, and a levi or yisrael may not duchen.

This is an unfortunate situation, for were not all Jews present at Har Sinai? Did not all Jews hear Hashem give the Ten Commandments? All of Israel is holy (see Bemidbar 16:3), yet the kohanim have taken upon themselves a special role!

So I gathered a group of likeminded Leviim (including some Korach Leviim, of the Horowitz family, who can trace themselves to Korach and refer to him as the heilege zeide Korach) and Yisraelim, and we set about making a minyan in which we could get the first aliya and could duchen.

To this end, we excluded kohanim from the minyan. Thus, we had no problem of getting the first aliya.

In terms of duchening, I came up with the following ingenious solution: As the time in Shemoneh Esrei approached for birkat leviim veyisraelim, the select few used the facilities. Afterwards, we had other leviim wash their hands, after which they said asher yatzar.

Meanwhile, these prechosen few had deliberately omitted birchat haTorah in the beginning of davening. Now they said it, and immediately thereafter, stood before the tzibbur, faced them, and said in a loud voice "yevarechecha Hashem veyishmerecha..."

Don't think I did this without getting prior Rabbinic approbation. I approached Rav Schachter outlined my plans, and asked if he thought that they met halachic requirements.

He replied: Don't be a schnook.
I asked him: Does this mean that there are no halachic issues?
He replied: Don't do it.

I surmised from this that there are no halachic reasons to refrain from doing this, but he did not think it was a good idea from a sociological perspective. And he and I clearly differ on this aspect. But at least on purely halachic standing, I was good to go!

// yes, satire
// and there is a story behind it besides just being parshat Korach
// what do you think? comments welcome.

Milk on my laptop keyboard -- my network saga

Or, how my various computers went down last week, depriving me of Internet access.

So, last Monday a friend of mine came over and helped me out with my network, by getting my modem to recall the username and password so that I did not have to have my laptop manually dial, and set up my router so that I could connect my other laptop (though I did not at the time set up the second laptop).

Later that night, I was in the other room and came in to the living room to see Meir standing on my desk chair with his hands over my laptop. He likes the laptop since he uses it to work on his "documents" (he likes to type in Word) and watch Baby Einstein DVDs. He also likes pressing keys and buttons, particularly the one that turns on and off the power. I left Meir to his own devices, since he often plays with my laptop without harm.

I checked in on him a few minutes later and saw what he had been up to -- he had poured mikl from his sippy cup onto the laptop keyboard and was merrily splashing about in it.

I panicked slightly, fearful of frying the motherboard, and cut power to the computer. I saw some milk pooled under the Alt key and figured it was a benign enough key to start off on -- if I couldn't get it back on, I had another Alt key, and it was the right Alt key, not the left one I use to switch to typing in Hebrew.

Sure enough, I couldn't get it back on. And for some reason the laptop was convinced the Alt key was pressed down, such that it interfered with the use of all other keys on the keyboard as well -- as well as interfering with the mouse.

My other laptop was still attempting to manually connect the DSL model, and could not figure out that it was already connected.

I would have been better off turning the laptop upside down and letting it drain. I was a bit annoyed at Meir, but more annoyed at myself, because I was the one who actually caused the damage.

The next morning, someone with more hardware experience got the key back on with a screwdriver, but the Alt key was still acting up -- now I could press some keys, but not others.

Finally, I asked some folks at a local computer repair shop if they could fix it. They said they would order the part and get back to me. Meanwhile I bought a USB keyboard to plug into the back of my laptop as a keyboard alternative. This worked a bit better but the Alt key was still interfering and I could not effectively work, even through gotomypc to my workplace.

The next day I found out they had forgotten to order the part. I left my laptop at the repair shop, and later that day put an order in for a new desktop PC. Which finally arrived Erev Shabbat, the same time the laptop was fixed.

Yesterday I started to set up the computer, install necessary programs, and am more of less back in business. Hooray!

posts so far for parshat Chukat

2004
Year 2
  • For the Border of Ammon Was Strong?
    • how so? Does this not contradict Devarim that they did not because of Divine decree? I suggest it means that the border was firm. Or another answer, variant text (LXX) that has יעזר rather than עז for the border, such that it is a border town by the name of עז or יעזר. And a parallel to referencing a border town in the haftara. Then I discovered Targum gives my first explanation.
  • Who Caused the Children of Ammon To Inherit?
    • Hashem, or Chemosh? or both, in Yiftach's mind? Or is it diplomacy?
  • Making Sense of Parah Adumah
    • that tumah is a construct, by fiat
I likely will not get a chance to post for the next week.


to be continued...

Mashiach from the Dead in The Five Towns Jewish Times

I was surprised to read an article in the Five Towns Jewish Times last week which seemed to propound the belief that either a) the Rebbe is not really dead, or that b) he will return from the dead to be mashiach.

The article, "Gimmel Tammuz," was written by Yanki Tauber and also appears at Chabad.org. When reading such articles, one needs to realize that it is an art form to hint at these matters without explicitly saying so, so that there is plausible deniability. And what is not said is almost as important as what is said.

Gimmel Tammuz is the yartzeit of the Lubavitcher Rebbe, tz"l. So one would expect a mention that the Rebbe is dead - a zecher tzaddik livracha. Now, perhaps he omits this based on this statement by the Rebbe, which he cites from the Rebbe. (Though depending on how he understands this statement and why he thinks it is an important statement to mention, that might be further proof that he believes the Rebbe to not truly be dead.) However, when there are people around who actively believe that the Rebbe is not really dead, or that he went into hiding and will return, then omitting it carries meaning, and if one wishes to avoid that meaning, one should use zatzal.

Further, thoughout the article, he never mentions that the Rebbe has died. He talks about the funeral and the cemetery, but omits the fact that the Rebbe died:
I remember hearing the news early Sunday morning (Israeli Time) and rushing to the airport. I remember arriving at the cemetery hours after the funeral, in midst of the throng still pouring in, as it would through the night and the days and nights to follow, from all over the world.
He omits what the news is, and talks around it by mentioning cemetery and funeral, such that his readers know to what he is referring while cleverly avoiding a statement that the Rebbe died.

The closest he gets to stating that the Rebbe died is the following:
I remember thinking: The Rebbe, who has redefined virtually every aspect of life, has also redefined death.
The Rebbe thus did not die, but rather redefined death.

Wow. Could you elaborate? He writes later in the article:
In one of his talks, the Rebbe quoted the Talmudic dictum that "Sleep is one sixtieth of death." Well, said the Rebbe, if sleep is a form of death, then death is a form of sleep. Sleep is not a termination or even an interruption of life -- it is a time of foment, the means by which body and soul recoup their energies for a fresh and refreshed onslaught upon the coming day. So is death. Death, said the Rebbe, is a "descent for the sake of ascent," a retraction of the arrow of life so that it can be impelled by the bow of vacuity with redoubled force.
The Rebbe, zatzal, was presumably talking about death in general, for everyone, and eventual techiyat hameitim. In the context of this article, it is talking specifically about the Rebbe.

The impression one gets (or one could get) from this quote is that, unlike normal people who simply die, the Rebbe redefined death. Death is a form of sleep, so he is not dead, just resting. ("No, no, 'e's uh,...he's resting.") He is in hiding somewhere obscured from us, in a "descent for the sake of ascent." It is a retraction of the arrow of life so that it can be impelled by the bow of vacuity with redoubled force. And that redoubled force is presumably the Rebbe's Second Coming.

(Alternatively, the Rebbe is dead, but his death is preparation for his eventual Second Coming.)

Early in the article, he writes:
There was shock and incredulity. There was grief and agony. There was passionate disagreement and fervent expectation and many, many unanswered and unanswerable questions.
What does he mean by these "unanswered and unanswerable questions?" The Rebbe had died. What are the questions?

He answers at the end, after citing the Rebbe that
Death, said the Rebbe, is a "descent for the sake of ascent," a retraction of the arrow of life so that it can be impelled by the bow of vacuity with redoubled force.
he writes:
How? When? Why? The unanswered questions remain unanswered. But we know what we need to do. And we're doing it. You can go see for yourself -- if you reside on planet earth, chances are that you are within driving distance of a Chabad-Lubavitch center.
Thus, the unanswered questions about the Rebbe's death -- or in the later context, it seems the Rebbe's return (being "impelled by the bow of vacuity with redoubled force") -- are: How? When? Why?

What does he mean by these questions? My best guess is: How will the Rebbe return? When? Why did he need to remove himself from the world?

But they know what to do -- to bring the Mashiach -- just as Chabad is always focused on. And they are doing it.

To me, this seems the correct elucidation of this deliberately oblique article. My question is if the editor of the paper realized this as well.

I wonder whether there will be any Letters to the Editor regarding this.

Anyway, consider this blogpost a sign of my "Orthodox Difference."

Sunday, July 02, 2006

Shadal on Midrashic Literalism - Analysis

The following occurs in vikuach al chochmat hakkaballah, which I read over Shavuot. At the beginning of the second day of the dispute, Shadal begins by speaking about peshat and various commentators, before moving on to attack philosophy and kabbalah based on this philosophy. Starting from the first line on the page, he states the following.
(The Author is speaking): ... Behold, the Rashbam and Ramban waged war to place peshat in its {rightful} place; and they themselves, though all their words are sweeter than honey, behold their words only come on the books of the Torah, but not on the rest of the holy books {=Nach} (except for Iyyov which the Ramban explained). And if we turn to the rest of the great commentators -- Ibn Ezra, Radak, and Abarbanel -- we find that in many places they divert from the peshat to another side - is this not the philosophic derash.

And the man {=his guest, but Shadal is really writing both sides of the discussion} replied to me and said: You have spoken correctly. A great and grievous damage has the mixed up philosophy damaged us -- which spread in the world via the Arabs, who took Aristotle as head and chief, and in his name they swear, and they wish to make his words agree with their beliefs which they received from their fathers, and they innovated a confused wisdom which confuses the hearts - which when the kingdom of Ishmael spread in the lands, this (ideology) also spread, and confused the de'ot and ruined the beliefs.

And the chachmei yisrael also, in order to make the words of this philosophy agree with our Complete Torah, forced and pressed the words of the Torah, Nevi`im, and the chachamim of the Mishna and the Talmud in order that they say what they did not say and never entered their hearts in {all} their days. And in order to do this they {the chachmei yisrael} brought out the {tools of} derash, remez and mashal {allegory}. And they abandoned the peshat and did not serve it....
This actually somewhat accords with the third category of the Rambam in terms of midrashic literalism - that if a statement by Chazal does not work with the sechel and the emet. I did not get to translating the Rambam in full, but compare the Hebrew of Shadal with the following statement of the Rambam (towards the end):



Again, my problem with this approach is brought out well by Shadal's words. If we allegorize where Chazal never intended allegory, we transform Chazal's words into what they were never intended to mean, just to make it accord with our own philosophical beliefs.

Now, one might argue that Shadal felt that Aristotelean philosophy was falsehood (and in fact it is falsehood), and so allegorizing pesukim, mishnayot and gemaras was moving away from the truth. But nowadays, we know the truth, in the form of modern science, and so we are moving towards truth. Of course, those perpetrating the allegory - the derash haphilosphy in Shadal's days and before also thought they knew the truth.

Conversely, Shadal might not feel the same way about modern science which he might have felt was truth. That is applying the same approach to something that actually is truth would not be in keeping with Shadal

On the other hand, as I have pointed out elsewhere, the social and intellect inputs to Josh Waxman are not the same as the social and intellectual inputs to the authors of various midrashim, and so just because I do not find something plausible does not mean that it was inplausible in the midrashic author's milieu. Declaring that the authorial intent was allegorical just because I disagree with a midrash on a historical level may well be forcing the words of the chachamim in order that they say what they did not say and never entered their hearts in all their days.

I do believe that many midrashim are allegorical, but that we must take care in identifying them rather than just labelling any midrash we disagree with as allegorical.

(Of course, this citation from Shadal does not necessarily touch on the issue of whether and which midrashim are allegorical, just on the issue of reinterpreting sources to fit your worldview.)

Here again, is Shadal.

Shadal (on midrashic literalism) - source

Rambam on Midrashic Literalism (source) - I

If we are to discuss midrashic literalism intelligently, it would help to have some of the sources available to us. To this end, I am uploading a scan of the Rambam's perush hamishnayot in his introduction to the 10th perek of Sanhedrin, where he discusses midrashic literalism and three groups which have different approaches to midrashic literalism. He takes the third approach, which (roughly) favors understanding (some?) midrashim allegorically where otherwise they would contradict the sechel. But this is a rough summary, and we should read this source carefully. Perhaps a translation to follow, and a discussion. Also, Shadal's take on the subject.

It begins in the first column, one line up from the large bold word harishona. Right click and open link in a new page, to see full screen.

parshat Shelach: Earlier Theophoric Names Involving Shem Hashem; Keshem Shemikablim Sechar Al HaDrisha...

In a previous post on parshat Shelach, I suggested that Yehoshua was the first with a theophoric name involving YKVK. Mississippi Fred MacDowell (S.) pointed out that Yocheved may be such a name. Indeed, names beginning with "Yo" such as this may indeed be theophoric, with "Yo" short for "Yeho." Thus, Yonatan and Yehonatan.

(I would not consider Yehuda to be a theophoric name, BTW.)

As I pointed out in the comment thread on that post, Yosef may also be such an example. After all, we see in Tehillim 81:6:

ה כִּי חֹק לְיִשְׂרָאֵל הוּא; מִשְׁפָּט, לֵאלֹהֵי יַעֲקֹב. 5 For it is a statute for Israel, an ordinance of the God of Jacob.
ו עֵדוּת, בִּיהוֹסֵף שָׂמוֹ-- בְּצֵאתוֹ, עַל-אֶרֶץ מִצְרָיִם;
שְׂפַת לֹא-יָדַעְתִּי אֶשְׁמָע.
6 He appointed it in Joseph for a testimony, when He went forth against the land of Egypt. {N}
The speech of one that I knew not did I hear:
Clearly as it occurs in Tehillim, Yosef is understood as Yehosef, which would then be a theophoric name incorporating Hashem's name.

However, this might be a bit ambiguous within sefer Bereishit. In Bereishit 30:23:24, Yosef is named:

כג וַתַּהַר, וַתֵּלֶד בֵּן; וַתֹּאמֶר, אָסַף אֱלֹהִים אֶת-חֶרְפָּתִי. 23 And she conceived, and bore a son, and said: 'God hath taken away my reproach.'
כד וַתִּקְרָא אֶת-שְׁמוֹ יוֹסֵף, לֵאמֹר: יֹסֵף יְהוָה לִי, בֵּן אַחֵר. 24 And she called his name Joseph, saying: 'The LORD add to me another son.'

Thus there is a dual etymology. The first does not involve YKVK, but rather Elokim, with a root of אסף. The second etymology does indeed involve YKVK, in which case perhaps it is theophoric, meaning "Hashem should add." On the other hand, there is no letter heh there, and the name Yosef (spelled with a cholam malei ) is matched in the same pasuk with Yosef - יֹסֵף - with a cholam chaser. So it does not really need a shem Hashem within the name, even though Hashem is mentioned. Indeed, other names of the tribes involve action by YKVK or Elokim in the etymology and are non-theophoric. So again, perhaps in Bereishit it is ambiguous.

On a related note, the following story. I know the person involved, but from what I've seen happen on the blogosphere, I try to omit names in stories that might be taken by anyone as controversial.

This fellow was on the subway and he saw a girl from Drisha learning Gemara. Her boyfriend was sitting next to her and had his arm around her, and they were occasionally nuzzling. {Slight clarification: she was trying to learn her sefer while her boyfriend was trying to nuzzle.} So he had a great line, and so, when it was his stop, before exiting the subway car he walked over to the girl and told her: כשם שמקבלים שכר על הדרישה כך מקבלים שכר על הפרישה.

Heh.

An interesting and useful article about Rambam's approach to midrashic literalism

by Dr. Avraham Elkayam can be found here. (from 1996)

Perhaps I will eventually get to addressing the Rambam.

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