Post: At the start of Yitro, we meet Moshe's two sons:
Why should pasuk 4 begin veshem ha`eched. Shouldn't it be veshem hasheni? Obviously, this is an acceptable grammatical construction - one's name was X and one's name was Y - just as the opposite is a grammatical construction. But Ibn Ezra takes pains to spell it out, and that this is minhag leshon hakodesh:
[יח, ד]He notes a parallel to I Shmuel 14:4, as an example:
ושם האחד -מנהג ל' הקדש לאמר פעמים ככה השני. ופעמים האחד. כמו: שם האחד בוצץ ושם האחד סנה. ותחסר מלת אמר אחר: כי אלהי אבי בעזרי. ואין כתוב: כי אמר אלהי אבי כי המלה שבה למעלה כי אמר: גר הייתי. כמו: כי הפרני אלהים. וכבר פירשתי למה קרא שם הקטן אליעזר.
Now, perhaps Ibn Ezra would take pains to make such a point clear, even though without him explaining this, it is hard to see where the confusion would be. Is he just noting interesting facts about the Hebrew language we can glean from this pasuk?
Sometimes, Ibn Ezra will explicitly cite context. But often, it pays to look to Rashi, or the midrash, and ask "what is bothering Ibn Ezra?" What would bother Ibn Ezra would not necessarily be something in the pasuk. Rather, he is responding to, and arguing with, some known position. Such that without learning Rashi or the midrashim, you would end up missing a lot from Ibn Ezra's intent.
And I would guess that this is one such instance. Here, I think he might be arguing with Saadia Gaon, who wrote:
ושם האחד אליעזר. והיה ראוי שיאמר ושם
השני וכתב הגאון ז״ל כי הטעם בזה לפי
שאליעזר הוא רומז לשמו של הקב״ה שנקרא
אחד שנאמר הלא אל אחד בראנו לכן לא רצה
להזכיר בו שני כי הוא אחד ואין שני ולכן עם
שונים אל יתערב:
( בספר צרור המור מרס"ג ז"ל )
This would then compel Ibn Ezra to respond as he did. And his argument is that it is a general pattern, and his prooftext is a pasuk that does not involve the shem haShem.
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